M1V1=M2V2 or M1/V1=M2/V2?
Now I know that the first one is the right one, but why? Why won't the second one work? It's a proportion problem, right?
2007-05-03 18:02:57 · 5 answers · asked by CIC 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Chemistry
You know, honestly, it's easier to just use dimensional analysis. That way you don't have to remember crap like this.
2007-05-03 19:42:52 · answer #1 · answered by timster1984 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's a proportion problem, but it's set up like this:
M1/V2 = M2/V1 for the proportion
The M1V1 = M2V2 just comes from that.
2007-05-04 01:09:22 · answer #2 · answered by atmtarzy 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because the product of molarity and volume is a mole or fraction thereof. So if "1" is an acid and "2" is a base, the equation tells us how much molarity we need for one of these compounds if we know everything else, or the volume we need for one of these compounds if we know everything else. The other "equation" doesn't give you anything useful.
2007-05-04 01:12:24 · answer #3 · answered by cattbarf 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Molarity = mol/vol
The molar ratios are the same, so the calculations should wind up as mol to mol.
However, dividing the Molarity by an extra volume would lead to moles/volume^2, which probably wouldn't work.
2007-05-04 01:07:13 · answer #4 · answered by ClevelandRocker 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is the same expression.
Look at elementary maths
2007-05-04 01:15:27 · answer #5 · answered by maussy 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋