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When I differentiate the formula for the volume of a sphere I get the surface area of a sphere. Similarly for the area and circumference of a circle. Is this more than just a coincidence. Does anyone know?

2007-05-03 16:34:35 · 5 answers · asked by Neil 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

5 answers

It works for some coordinate systems but not for others; for example, it does not work for rectangular or cylindrical coordinates.

2007-05-03 16:40:19 · answer #1 · answered by bruinfan 7 · 0 0

This is not a coincidence. You can see this as follows.

For a sphere, what is the volume of the sphere in terms of an integral? Well, it is a sum (integral) of thin spherical shells. The volume of a spherical shell is ~ 4 pi r^2 dr.

So the volume of a sphere is int 4 pr r^2 dr = 4/3 pi r ^3.

So you see the integral of surface area is volume and hence derivative of volume is surface area.

Same with circle.

2007-05-03 16:50:22 · answer #2 · answered by doctor risk 3 · 0 0

given quantity is a function of radius (a)V = V(R) = 4/3piR^3 fee of replace of quantity wrt radius = dV/dR = V'(R) = 4/3pi*(3R^2) => dV/dR = 4piR^2 (b)the quantity V'(R) provides the floor component to the sphere pondering the gadgets V = m^3 and R =m so for dV/dR we've m^3/m = m^2 the unit m^2 corresponds to section(ie., floor component to a sphere)

2016-12-28 11:31:45 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

This is not just a coincidence. The differentiation calculations are correct.

2007-05-03 16:43:46 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No, it's not a pure coincidence. This page explains it to some extent:
http://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/53661.html

2007-05-03 16:42:22 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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