Just something I was pondering, how come Prince Phillip can't be king since his wife is Queen Elizabeth? That doesn't make any sense since if "Prince" Charles becomes king, his wife would be queen.
Thanks!
2007-05-03 08:35:39 · 10 answers · asked by jenloma 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Royalty
Prince Philip can not become King because if he did his title would be above Queen Elizabeth's family and than his family would become the English family. Instead of the Windsor royal family it would be Mountbatten. Prince Philip father was King of Greece when Greece had a monarchy. After the monarchy left Greece, Philip as a child went to England and France. Philip does have English blood as a decendent of Queen Victoria.
Now Prince Charles's wife, and Prince WIlliams someday wife can become Queen's but it is not automatic. Meaning if Prince Charles becomes King Charles that does not automatically make Camilla a Queen. It is not a birth right for their wives. And in that case since the King is over the Queen we can gave both and still keep the Windsor family as the royal family.
2007-05-03 09:00:35 · answer #1 · answered by Anna L 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Queen Elizabeth Ii Husband
2016-12-14 15:15:53 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Queen Elizabeth Husband
2016-09-28 05:10:46 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
There is a difference between the Monarch who can be King or Queen or both in the case of William and Mary (who ruled jointly from 1689-1695) and the consort of the Monarch who in the case of the wife of a king could be queen consort. The husband of a queen doesn't have the right to any title. He would retain his own (King Phillip of Spain and Queen Mary or Prince Albert of Saxe-Coburg and Gotha who married Queen Victoria). Queen Victoria gave Albert the title Prince Consort as well as his own title. Prince Phillip was a Prince of Greece and Denmark before he married Princess Elizabeth, heiress presumptive to the throne.(only presumptive because if a brother had been produced he would take precedence regardless of age). He renounced his titles eight months before marrying in 1947 so that he could become naturalised British and carry on with his career in the Navy (he could not do it as a foreign national after the war) and even though he would have known he was marrying the Princess everyone expected her father the King to live a long life. He was created Duke of Edinburgh, Earl of Merioneth and Baron Greenwich on the eve of his marriage. He wasn't created a Prince of the United Kingdom until 1957 10 years after his marriage. Princess Elizabeth had become Queen 5 years earlier after her father died in 1952. Other countries with a royal family have a similar tradition. Look at the Netherlands, they have had three queens in succession - each of their husbands was given the title of Prince whether born to it or not.
2016-03-14 17:40:56 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
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Elizabeth II is Queen of the United Kingdom, her husband is titled and styled as HRH The Prince Philip, Duke of Edinburgh. Elizabeth II inherited the throne through her father, King George VI of the United Kingdom and was named Heiress Presumptive. Prince Philip was never a "King" to start with, he was married to a princess who was first in the line to the British crown. However, your correct that when a King takes a wife, she becomes The Queen, but this is a different situation. Although, the Queen could name her husband "King Consort" it is yet still only a "courtsey title." King consort is a title given in some monarchies to the husband of a queen regnant. Nowadays, it is a symbolic title only, the sole constitutional function of the holder being similar to a queen consort, namely to produce an heir to the throne. Spain, Portugal, England and Scotland have all had kings consort, however, since the rank of king normally outranks that of queen, in most monarchies the queen's husband is given the title of prince or prince consort instead.
2016-04-08 00:31:48 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
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RE:
Queen Elizabeth's husband Phillip? Why not King Phillip?
Just something I was pondering, how come Prince Phillip can't be king since his wife is Queen Elizabeth? That doesn't make any sense since if "Prince" Charles becomes king, his wife would be queen.
Thanks!
2015-08-19 02:15:03 · answer #6 · answered by Jeannetta 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He wasnt born in the British Royal Family he's a part of the Greek Royal Family he was Prince Philippos of Greece and Denmark, He gave up the title to marry Elizabeth
Prince Philip was required to convert from Greek Orthodoxy to Anglicanism, to renounce his allegiance to the Hellenic Crown, and to become a naturalised British subject. He renounced his Greek and Danish royal titles on 18 March 1947 and decided to take the name Mountbatten, an Anglicised version of Battenberg, his mother's family name.
2007-05-03 08:46:49 · answer #7 · answered by Andreu 2 · 4⤊ 0⤋
The title of King only passes to the heir. The Queen's husband is everything but King ... title wise. Males can inherit the title only by blood, but females through marriage. Diana would have been Queen. Williams wife will be Queen. But should one of Andrew's girls ascend to the throne, their husbands would never be higher than Prince Consort.
2007-05-03 10:12:46 · answer #8 · answered by .. .this can't be good 5 · 3⤊ 1⤋
This is because in history Kings have always been considered of a higher status than queens. Therefore making him king would technicaly put him in a higher rank than the queen. Don't ask me why we still do things this way we just do.
2007-05-03 08:42:46 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
It was part of the marriage arrangements that he would be Duke of Edinburgh, Earl of Merioneth, and Baron Greenwich, of Greenwich in the County of London. That way the royal title would stay in the hands of the daughter of George VI rather than a Greek/Danish family.
Did you know he does have a claim to the throne in his own right. I think he is 468th in line to the throne.
2007-05-04 04:01:11 · answer #10 · answered by Johnny 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋