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What is the antiderivative of 0?

2007-05-03 07:28:55 · 7 answers · asked by psxiloveyou 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

7 answers

It's 0 + C. So it's just C.

2007-05-03 07:32:49 · answer #1 · answered by firstythirsty 5 · 3 0

We're being asked to integrate sin^3(-3x) and I think you need the condition on F to be evaluated at a number, not x, otherwise it doesn't make sense. (e.g. F(0) = 0). First, let u = -3x so du/dx = -3 and the integral becomes -1/3 int sin^3(u) du = -1/3 int sin^2(u)sin(u) du = -1/3 int [1 - cos^2(u)] sin(u)du. Now let w = cos(u) so dw/du = -sin(u) and the integral becomes 1/3 int [1 - w^2] dw = 1/3[w - w^3/3] + c = 1/3[cos(u) - 1/3cos^3(u)] + c = 1/3cos(-3x) [1 - 1/3cos^2(-3x)] + c. This is the antiderivative F(x) and if we apply the condition F(0) = 0, then we have 1/3[1 - 1/3(1)] + c = 0 or c = -2/9. Work out c using same procedure if F(0) = any other number.

2016-05-19 21:55:23 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

That's 0 + C = C,
C a constant.

2007-05-03 08:05:18 · answer #3 · answered by steiner1745 7 · 0 0

There is no anti-derivative to 0. Zero is nothing, if you are getting 0 as part of the equation, you add nothing to the rest of the equation.

2007-05-03 07:37:39 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

any constant has a derivative of 0.
"the" antiderivative is misleading, implying there is only one.
The answer is "C", an arbitrary constant.

2007-05-03 07:33:45 · answer #5 · answered by Paranoid Android 4 · 0 0

any constant because a derivative of a constant is always zero

2007-05-03 08:00:22 · answer #6 · answered by blueboy3056 3 · 0 0

integral of (0dx) = c, any constant.

because derivative of c is zero.

2007-05-03 07:33:17 · answer #7 · answered by fcas80 7 · 0 0

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