Aside from fiduciary duties to its shareholders, a corporation has no outside duties in the absence of any regulatory scheme, does it?
In other words, if there is no governmental regulatory scheme isn't it in the best interest of a corporation to cheat if the risk calculus is advantageous to do so?
After all, in the view of the corporate entity, as long as the customer agrees to pay the amount negotiated, wouldn't cheating, lying, misrepresenting, etc., not only be okay but advantageous from an economic standpoint if there were no statutory scheme penalizing it?
P.S. By "regulatory/statutory scheme" I mean laws to obey.
My question basically addresses instances where there are no laws on the books to regulate certain types of corporate behavior, such as emerging areas of internet commerce.
2007-05-03
04:50:41
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5 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Politics & Government
➔ Other - Politics & Government
The example I had in mind is an offshore corporation which runs an internet poker gambling site. Now since it is incorporated offshore and not subject to US laws, and furthermore no one really has the ability to audit its computer programs anyway, where is the disincentive to cheat?
An internet poker site makes money from "rakes", i.e., the take on each hand played. Most internet poker sites also offer free play chip games. So if it could be shown that by rigging play chip games for outcomes that persuaded marginal players who wouldn't otherwise play the real $ games to in fact play them, that the site would make more $$, wouldn't it be in their best economic interest to do so?
2007-05-03
05:08:15 ·
update #1