2007-05-03 03:22:17 · 9 answers · asked by deborah g 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
I'm guessing you mean they inherited the property.... No, inheritance is NOT community property.
2007-05-03 03:31:53 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Maybe. It all depends if the property was utilized as a part of the marital assests during the marriage.
For example, if one spouse was left a house and the couple moved into it as their primary residence, then it is community property.
On the other hand, if the spouse that was left the house, uses it as investment property and doesn't co-mingle the money with the existing marital finances, then it will most likely not be subjected to an equitable distribution.
2007-05-03 03:43:12 · answer #2 · answered by YBMEUBU 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
When people marry, they loveingly give themselves to each other. Hopefully divorce does not come into the picture. Tho too frequently it does. And then the battle begins. No one NEEDS to give anyone anything. To be FAIR, both should walk away with whatever they each brought TO the marriage. But divorce is rarely FAIR. With that said, the simple answer is no.
2007-05-03 03:31:54 · answer #3 · answered by iyamacog 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on the state in which you live. Different states have different marriage laws in relation to property division. This is a question for a divorce attorney in the state in which you live.
2007-05-03 04:03:40 · answer #4 · answered by eviltruitt 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
by law unfortunately yes, but if that property was the others before u were married it should be theres why be greedy.or an a$$ just because he/she left. that's why i will never marry or i will have a prenup i work to hard for someone just to take my stuff , i bought everything i have without any ones help i be damed if someone thinks there taking it just because it didn't work out.
2007-05-03 03:33:27 · answer #5 · answered by smurfette_ftwayne 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I think it depends if you live in a common-law (community property) state.
2007-05-03 03:39:29 · answer #6 · answered by bluvw 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. It was their sole and separate property prior to the marriage.
However, if it was property that you helped pay on since the marriage, then you have a claim on the property.
2007-05-03 03:26:25 · answer #7 · answered by Royalhinney 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
WHY? would anyone ask this question? i`m glad that i DON`T know you. even though you deserve NO answer, i`ll give you one. you should be entitled to only half, that`s half of any MARITAL ASSETS. wow!!!!!!!!!!!!!
2007-05-03 03:58:41 · answer #8 · answered by jeff p 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why don't you try working and get your own stuff.
2007-05-03 03:29:55 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋