For any positive integers a < b, b² - a², 2ab, and b² + a² are Pythagorean triplets. The product then would be:
2ab(b + a)(b - a)(b² + a²)
60 is factorized into 2² 3 5
If either a or b is even, then we already have 2². If both are odd, we still have 2² because of terms like (b + a), and because there's already a 2 at the beginning of the product expression. If either a or b is a multiple of 3, we have the 3 factor. Otherwise, either a or b is of the form 3x + 1 or 3x - 1, which means either the term (b + a) or (b - a) will be a muliple of 3. Finally, if either a or b is a muliple of 5, we have the 5 factor. Otherwise, either a or b is of the form 5x -2, 5x - 1, 5x + 1, 5x + 2. If both have either + or - 1, or + or - 2, then the term (b + a) or (b - a) will be a muliple of 5. Otherwise, if one has + or - 1 while the other has + or - 2, then the last term (b² + a²) will be a multiple of 5, and the proof is done.
2007-05-02 19:19:35
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answer #1
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answered by Scythian1950 7
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It's true (and it was known to the Greeks), but I don't remember how the proof goes. It's also true that the product of the legs of an integer Phythgorean triple is divisible by 12.
There's gotta be a bunch of sites that explain the proof.
Doug
2007-05-03 02:15:11
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answer #2
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answered by doug_donaghue 7
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Appears to be TRUE.
PROVE;
a^2 + b^2 = c^2
If the Pythagroean triple has divisors
60 = 2 *2* 3 *5
2007-05-03 01:58:25
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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What does porve mean?
What is the function of the full stop?
dvisvible is a good one.
Surely, even mathematicians learn some English.
2007-05-03 02:02:52
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answer #4
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answered by Canute 6
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