The numbers 0-9 obviously consist of our base-10 representation of Pi. If you search through the first million digits, you'll find all numbers 0-9999 are found somewhere within the number.
My question is are ALL numbers, up to infinity represented somewhere within Pi?
2007-05-02 15:25:48 · 5 answers · asked by DesignEx 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
For that to be true, pi would have to be "normal", meaning its decimal expansion is truly random. No one has been able to prove pi is normal, but it probably is. That would mean somewhere in the expansion of pi, the digit 1 repeats itself 1,000,000 times -- in fact, this pattern happens an infinite number of times.
2007-05-02 15:37:46 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
in an infinte string of seminly random numbers every number should appear but since infinty is not really a number more of a concept I would say that all the numbers 1-infinity don't appear.
2007-05-02 15:44:21 · answer #2 · answered by Mr. Smith 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Very interesting question, I don't think anyone can know yet, but at the way its going, probably up really high.
2007-05-02 15:38:40 · answer #3 · answered by rosslambert 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No one knows for sure but the conjecture is yes.
2007-05-02 15:28:41 · answer #4 · answered by bruinfan 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
may be yes
2007-05-02 15:30:44 · answer #5 · answered by coolbrath 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋