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range for g(x) = (x-3) / (x-1) for x cannot be 1..
range is R \ {1}...is this correct?..if so then why?

2007-05-01 19:59:15 · 2 answers · asked by pinkiezbox 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

Let (x-3) / (x-1) = y, where x ≠ 1.
Then x - 3 = y(x - 1)
so (y-1)x = y - 3
so x = (y-3) / (y-1) if y ≠ 1.
(Note that in this case, g(x) is its own inverse. This is not normally true.)
So for any y ≠ 1 there is an x such that g(x) = y. So the range of g(x) contains R \ {1}.
If g(x) = 1 then x-3 = x-1; this is impossible. So there is no x such that g(x) = 1. So the range of g(x) does not contain 1.
Hence the range of g(x) is R \ {1}.

2007-05-01 20:07:11 · answer #1 · answered by Scarlet Manuka 7 · 0 0

No. x ε [R \ {1}] is the domain of x. The range of g is all of the values that g may assume as x runs over its domain. In this case, range(g) = R.

HTH

Doug

2007-05-01 20:08:08 · answer #2 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 0 0

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