Which is correct? I usually say must of ____, but I think it might be wrong. Ex:
It must of taken forever for that to occur.
It must have taken forever for that to occur.
It's the must have form that is correct to use.
The two uses of "have" bearing verbs are fun and easy to remember.
The difference between I did that,
I used to do that, and
I have done that
are perhaps interesting.
I did that means on one occasion normally or during a specified time period--I did that while I lived in Sweden from 1977 to 1984.
I used to do that uses the same present tense ongoing period as a reference point; but it means you no longer do that now, precisely. (I did it sometimes/often then; I do not do it at all now).
And I have done that is used to indicate then opposite of I have never done that; it means you did it in the past an unspecified number of times; the point is that you affirm that you did it rather than denying that was the case; you leave open the possibility of doing it in the future or not as well.
The other have form attaches to active verbs, "I have been doing that for 12 years" means you're still doing it.
Turning that have into a past tense means, "I had been doing that when I lived in Sweden" (but I don't do it any more).
And the have form can even be used with an active verb and the future 'will"
I will have been ding that once I've lived in Sweden. (and I may or may not continue).
Of--? Never.
2007-05-01 16:19:53
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answer #1
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answered by Robert David M 7
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Must have is the "correct" answer. It comes from a re-analysis of "must've" and it's becoming so common now that it could possibly result complete language shift in the use of words that curently cliticise "have“ to the end.
2007-05-01 22:57:53
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answer #2
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answered by Ghede 2
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The second one, 'It must have taken forever for that to happen' is correct.
2007-05-01 16:05:06
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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it is not proper English nor grammatically correct to say "must of." of is a preposition and taken is a verb. of taken would be the prepositional phrase and it doesn't make sense!
the four tenses of take are: take, taking, took, have taken.
so must have taken is the verb in the sentence--hope you caught on :)
2007-05-01 17:31:20
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answer #4
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answered by wat_more_can_i_say? 6
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Hi, when you say 'must of' it just sounds like that. You are actually saying must've (must have) even though you may not realise this. If you listen to someone saying 'must have' quickly, like in general conversation, you will hear it actually sounds like 'must of' because we say 'must've'. In written English you would never see must of because you cannot say this. It is grammatically incorrect. i hope this makes sense.
2007-05-01 16:39:19
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answer #5
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answered by Caro 3
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You just got to be simply isn't good grammar. The proper version is "You have just got to be..." and it would be followed by a noun or an adjective. You have just got to be careful in going down that road. You have just got to be a deserving candidate. "You just have to" is followed by a verb. You just have to try hard. You just have to write clearly. You just have to sing out loud. On the whole, in formal writing, you should avoid the word "got". "Have to" is far better style.
2016-05-18 07:14:54
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answer #6
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answered by ? 3
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"must have taken forever" is correct
2007-05-01 16:06:12
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answer #7
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answered by ddot2882 6
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people say and, unfortunately, sometimes write "must of" instead of 'must have."
must've would be the proper way to write the contraction for must have.
of for have is never correct. :)
2007-05-01 16:07:55
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answer #8
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answered by blackathena 3
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"Must of" is never correct. It is always "must have." "Have" functions as a helping verb which helps form the participal form of the verb. "Of" is a preposition meaning "belonging to."
2007-05-01 17:27:52
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answer #9
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answered by bunstihl 6
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It's must have. We usually speak differently than we spell eg: than; then, except; accept
2007-05-01 16:06:59
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answer #10
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answered by Steph L 2
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