The runner on first doesn't attempt to advance and is tagged by the first baseman. The first baseman then steps on first base for the force out. Is it a double play?
I know that if he would have tagged the base then the runner it would have just been a force at first.
2007-05-01 15:14:31 · 10 answers · asked by andrew M 1 in Sports ➔ Baseball
Yes, it is. Since the fielder tagged the player 1st then touched the bag they are both out. If the fielder would have touched 1st base first then tagged the runner the runner would be safe.
2007-05-01 15:20:34 · answer #1 · answered by Martino78 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Actually, all of these answers are wrong.
If the ball is hit to the firstbasemen and he dropped the ball, even by error, and the runner does not attempt to advance because he was waiting to see if the ball was caught, the firstbaseman is charged with an error and the call falls under rule 6.05(this IS NOT to be confused with rule 6.05l, which states a fielder CAN let a fly ball hit the ground purposely without ATTEMPTING a catch, and THEN get an easy double play, but he CAN NOT attempt a catch and drop it, purposely or not, and still get a double play!!!). The ball was caught(which would have been an out and would have no longer made for a forced out on the runner as a force out is only on ground balls) but the fielder dropped the ball, in error, which also ends the force out. Because the error was in technically in dropping the ball, not catching it, the runner who does not try to advance can stay on base. When the batter reaches based, if he is not tagged out already, he would be ruled out as the lead runner gets to keep his base.
I know it sounds weird, but that is really how it goes. This is actually the case in all cases where the fielder touches the ball before it hits the ground. If a fielder touches a ball in any form before it touces the ground and the ball is not caught, their is no longer a force out on a lead runner.
Hope this explains it and helps you out.
REVA.... The question stated that the runnder did not attempt to advance, so based on that statement, he would be safe. However, had he even stepped off the bag, you are correct. I just answered it as if the runner did not move at all(attempt to advance).
2007-05-01 16:38:58 · answer #2 · answered by Paulbo B 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The first question is: Did the first baseman drop the ball intentionally?
If the umpire believes so, the ball is dead, the batter-runner is out, and runners return to the bases they occupied at the time of the pitch.
If the drop was accidental, the runner on first is forced to advance to second; he no longer has the right to first. So being tagged with the ball -- on or off the base -- makes the runner out. The first baseman's then stepping on first retires the batter-runner.
Please note: The play on the batter-runner at first is not a force play.
Paulbo is spouting utter nonsense.
Reva P: Again, there is no force play at first.
2007-05-01 16:34:30 · answer #3 · answered by Ryan R 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Double play in your first example.
Actually, in your second scenario it's a double play too, unless the runner is standing on first base when he's tagged. If the runner was standing on the bag and the first baseman steps on the bag first, the batter is out and the runner stays. But if he's off the base, it's a tag out after the force out.
The exception is if the umpire feels that the first baseman INTENTIONALLY dropped the ball to create a DP. In that case, he is allowed to rule the batter out and the runner safe at first.
2007-05-01 15:21:57 · answer #4 · answered by JWH67 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Not if the runner had even the end of one toe on the bag. But if he was entirely off the bag, and is tagged when the first baseman recovers the ball, yes it's a double play. But TAGGED, not forced. The only player who can be forced at first is the batter-runner.
You'll find definitions and examples of force and tag plays in rule 2.00
2007-05-01 16:57:22 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The runner is out if tagged by the first baseman. The batter is also out if the first baseman tags first base. I have done something similar to this. (dropping the ball if the runner was off guard, tagging the runner and then tagging first base for a double play). It confuses the heck out of umpires. And base runners too.
2007-05-01 15:24:16 · answer #6 · answered by Max 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It is a double play, no error for the drop,
EXCEPTION (Rule 6.05k) if a infielder intentionally drops any fair batted ball in flight including a line drive or bunt with first base occupied ( also 1st and 2nd , first and third, or loaded ) the ball is dead, the batter is out and runners return to bases occupied at time of pitch.
2007-05-02 00:56:10 · answer #7 · answered by david w 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's a fluky play, but it'd have to be an error on the first baseman and a tag out put out.
2007-05-01 15:19:59 · answer #8 · answered by Clown on Crack 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yeah I think so. An unassisted double play.
2007-05-01 15:19:20 · answer #9 · answered by AODAbuse 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes
2007-05-01 16:34:46 · answer #10 · answered by Ted B 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋