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I think you have to use trig substitution, but i have never seen a question like this before. A fully supported answer would be much appreciated.
thanks

2007-05-01 12:11:05 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

Let x = sin u, then dx=cos u du. So we have:

∫(sin u+1)²/(1-sin² u)^(3/2) cos u du

Using the Pythagorean theorem:

∫(sin u+1)²/(cos² u)^(3/2) cos u du

Computing the power and simplifying:

∫(sin u+1)²/cos² u du

Expanding the numerator:

∫(sin² u + 2 sin u + 1)/(cos² u) du

Expanding further:

∫tan² u + 2 sec u tan u + sec² u du

Now, tan² u = sec² u - 1, so:

∫2 sec² u + 2 sec u tan u - 1 du

All of these are derivatives you should know:

2 tan u + 2 sec u - u + C

Now, expanding:

2 sin u/cos u + 2/cos u - u + C

Rewriting the cosines:

2 sin u/√(1-sin² u) + 2/√(1-sin² u) - u + C

And resubstituting:

2x/√(1-x²) + 2/√(1-x²) - arcsin x + C

And we are done.

2007-05-01 12:27:37 · answer #1 · answered by Pascal 7 · 1 1

oo thats a pretty symbol, howd you do that?

2007-05-01 19:16:06 · answer #2 · answered by Broked_Hart 2 · 0 0

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