2007-05-01 06:20:37 · 16 answers · asked by Cat Lover 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Royalty
it is a long standing rule that men cannot use their wives titles. When a woman marries her husband with a title it a rule that she can us the female form of his title because i woman is part of her husband but not so for a man. No man would take the male form of his wife's titles. Example the Duke of Norfork wife is called the Duchess of Norfork but the Countess of Mar's husband does not gain the title of earl he would keep his own title if he had one. other example is Princess Alexandra, the Hon. Lady Ogilvy she is a princess by birth but her husband is only a knight and so her title is that of lady to reflect her husband sir. Prince Philip was born a prince and gave up his title to marry the queen on his marriage he was grant titls of english noblitiy and the style HRH. later the queen made him a prince of the united kingdom and later he was granted the title prince consort. It toke many year for queen victoria to get parliement to grant prince albert the title of prince consort. Philip of Spain was give the title of King Consort by the term of the marriage contract when he married Queen mary 1st. he is the only non heir to the english throne to be give this title when Mary and William took the throne they co ruler and equal partners but his wife gave him the lead rule. Parliament could give Prince Philip the title of king consort as then once gave it to the other Philip but it is most unlikely.
2007-05-01 14:38:16 · answer #1 · answered by The High King 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
This question has been asked so frequently I'm surprised there is anyone left in the world who doesn't know the answer.
Okay. Here's the scoop on the Royal Duo.
A King outranks a Queen.
If Prince Phillip were to have been declared 'King', then HE would be the ruler of Great Britain, not Queen Elizabeth. Elizabeth is the rightful heir to the crown, which she inherited from her father, George VI.
So, when a King marries someone, they become a Queen because he is still king.
When a Queen marries someone, they don't become a King because she would lose her job.
Okay?
2007-05-01 11:32:30 · answer #2 · answered by old lady 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Because Queen Elizabeth is the monarch and inherited the throne from her father King George VI. Philip cannot become king because he is not the heir.And he cannot be given the title, because a king outranks a queen.
Most husbands of reigning British queens have been given the title Prince Consort, however Philip was made Duke of Edinburgh by King George VI.
2007-05-01 06:40:21 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 1⤋
This question comes up all the time. The consort of a King becomes Queen. The consort of a Queen regnant does not become King because then he would outrank her.
EXCEPTION: An exception to the rule may be approved by parliament. So in 1688 King James II was chased off the throne because of his Catholicism. His daughter Mary, a Protestant succeeded and parliament asked her husband Prince William of Orange to serve as King. They were the only joint sovereigns, William III and Mary II.
2007-05-01 11:02:02 · answer #4 · answered by monkfishoncape 1 · 2⤊ 0⤋
The reason the Phillip is the Prince instead of the King is because Elizabeth is the hereditary ruler and as such has the highest rank. If Philip were king, he would outrank her, therefore he is the Prince.
2007-05-01 07:53:01 · answer #5 · answered by fairyoevil 1 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Listen to Jill and those below her!!!
A Queen is outranked by a King, that is why when Queen Victoria was married to Prince Albert of Saxe-Gotha, she had the title of "Prince Consort" CREATED just for him! So that he would not feel "left out" or unloved and unworthy of His Queen. Since THEN, all husbands of the ruling Monarch's that have been Queen's (i.e., Queen Elizabeth II) have had their husband titled after Prince Albert as "Prince Consort."
P.S. It was almost 2-3 years after Queen Elizabeth was crowned before Prince Phillip BECAME "PRINCE CONSORT", he didn't just become Prince Consort when she became Queen, he had to wait until she BESTOWED IT UPON HIM!
2007-05-01 07:29:45 · answer #6 · answered by AdamKadmon 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Elizabeth is the reigning monarch and holds the highest ranking in the land;King is a high rank,and only ruling(reigning)kings hold that honoric as there is no title of "King Consort."Philip is Prince Consort because he is not the regent.
2007-05-01 08:20:38 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Because of the line of succession in British law. Women can only become monarchs if there are no men in line for the throne. Elizabeth is the Windsor - Phillip is not.
2007-05-01 06:31:00 · answer #8 · answered by professorc 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
1. Charles does not have dementia. That is a trashy tabloid story. 2. Any royal who was physically and mentally unable to take on a regency would not be appointed. William would be appointed regent in that case.Parliament also has a say on succession, as has been explained many times in the past.
2016-05-18 00:55:23 · answer #9 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it was her father King George VI who granted HRH The title of DUke of Edinburgh. He's not entitled to become HM because Parliment would n't allow it.
he was lucky to marry her as HM George 6th didn't exactly like her choice of husbands, but since he was the nephew of uncle Dickie ( Mountbatten) he said ok.The Title HRH Duke of Edinburgh will go to his son HRH The Prince Edward.
2007-05-01 08:10:52 · answer #10 · answered by obanlassie 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋