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2007-04-30 21:51:34 · 5 answers · asked by ruby 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

and also, if - inf/ some # ...does that always equal inf?

2007-04-30 21:53:33 · update #1

5 answers

No, because ln(e)=1 and that does not equal plus or minus infinity.

Th

2007-04-30 21:58:46 · answer #1 · answered by Thermo 6 · 1 0

graph of lnx varies from -inf 2 +inf. so lnx can take any value for range but domain (x>0) should be positive

2007-05-01 05:02:51 · answer #2 · answered by gg g 1 · 0 0

???
I'm not really sure I understand the question. The natural logarithm of a number is the value to which e (the base of the natural logarithms) must be raised to equal the number.

HTH

Doug

2007-05-01 04:58:17 · answer #3 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 0 0

for y= ln(x)
the domain that is the x value must be
0
the range that is the y value must be
-infinity < y=ln(x) <+infinity

2007-05-01 04:57:33 · answer #4 · answered by industrie 3 · 0 0

yes its always infinity
lnx has the range of (1,+ve infinity)

2007-05-01 04:58:17 · answer #5 · answered by lööshy 1 · 0 0

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