1/32
To get this note that the probability of loosing each game is 1/2, so the probability of 5 in a row is (1/2) * (1/2) * (1/2) * (1/2) * (1/2) = (1/2)^5 = 1/32 or about a 3% chance.
2007-04-30 16:43:39
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answer #1
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answered by Phineas Bogg 6
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5 different trials, the chances of losing is 1/2.
prob. of losing 5 straight times = 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2
=(1/2)^5 = (1/32)
there is a 1 in 32 chance of losing 5 straight times
2007-04-30 16:44:37
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answer #2
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answered by horrid 3
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if you have 50/50 chance of winning then it means that you are going to win 1/2 (0.5) of the time and lose 1/2 (0.5) of the time..
my solution is to just muliplty 1/2 (0.5) by 5 times
so 0.5x0.5x0.5x0.5x0.5
the answer is
0.03125..
2007-04-30 16:45:52
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answer #3
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answered by Chanale 2
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To lose 5 consecutive times would have to lose EACH time.
ie lose 1st time
and
lose 2nd time
and
lose 3rd time
and
lose 4th time
and
lose 5th time
P(lose 5 consecutive times ) = (1/2)^5 = 1/32
2007-04-30 22:18:19
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answer #4
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answered by Como 7
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1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2 = Y
you have to do the rest on your own
2007-04-30 16:45:07
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answer #5
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answered by neuman16 2
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the possibilities of them prevailing are solid, they owned england contained in the ashes 5-0 so i say they have a 25% probability of prevailing the different 75% is both pakistan , india, or south africa South Africa beat Pakistan in attempt series( im a pakistani through ways) India beat West Indies contained in the odi's 3-a million and Pakistan beat West Indies contained in the three attempt series
2016-12-05 03:45:22
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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(1/2)^5=1/32
2007-04-30 16:42:18
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answer #7
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answered by bruinfan 7
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3.125%. Where;
1) 50%
2) 25%
3) 12.5%
4) 6.25%
5) 3.125%
2007-04-30 16:49:31
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answer #8
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answered by James 3
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i think it is 0 because if u have like 100% of winning how would u lose???
2007-04-30 16:44:10
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answer #9
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answered by superstar 2
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