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I have been researching my family history through several genealogical websites and found out that many of my great-grandparents were Kings and Queens in different countries a long time ago (from the late 1500's-prior). The royal lineage of the family stopped sometime around 1593 or so.

I know that there were kings, queens, princes and princesses before that time, but I'm wondering about my grandparents who came after those famous historical grandparents did--would I say that they were princeses/princes too or does the title "princess" and "prince" only apply when someone is in rule? I'm not sure how to word them in my research.

For instance, one of my great-grandfathers was King James IV from Scotland. Would his daughter or son then be called a princess or prince? What about his grandchildren or great grandchildren? What do I call them?

I ask, because there is a special mention of one of his granddaughters--the site specifically says, "The great-grandaughter of James

2007-04-30 13:29:14 · 8 answers · asked by LaPrincesse 3 in Society & Culture Royalty

8 answers

Even if you can track your family lineage, it still doesn't mean that your or members of your family can claim a title or use the title Princess. You would need documents to prove this. Example a royal letter patent. granting your family the title.

You are doing this research by websites? Look you need to go to the UK and go through old papers to seek out this Information. I wouldn't depend on these websites.

2007-04-30 13:57:52 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

because you've already been counseled of the positive details of so-suggested as Indian Princesses, allow's communicate about blood quantum. it really is a probability to be 3/sixty 4 and it really is barely one way how: an finished blood man or woman has a baby with someone who's a million/2. Their new child is 3/4. This 3/4 man or woman has a baby with a nonNative. that child is 3/8. That 3/8 man or woman has a baby with a nonNative. that child is 3/16. That 3/16 man or woman has a baby with a nonNative. that child is 3/32. That 3/32 man or woman has a baby with a nonNative. that child is 3/sixty 4. So, it really is a probability that you may want to be 3/sixty 4. definitely, i have considered thousands of claims of being community and frequently the human beings comprise bogus fractions like a million/3 or a million/10 or probabilities. that you've comprise a blood quantum which could not merely possible yet not overstated i might want to take that part of your question in any case of a probability. besides the indisputable fact that, the different aspects of your question are lacking legitimacy: the completed "Indian Princess" element....blah! Royalty? Please. exams? do not you want. the perfect element that you may want to do is to confirm the call of this great grandmother, discover out if she's listed on any Cherokee rolls, exceptionally one utilized through between the federally regarded Cherokee tribes, and get in touch with that tribe on to substantiate your findings. Lose the tale until eventually it really is shown. or you'll come off the way you've come off the following: A grasping lengthy-lost descendant who has no freakin' clue.

2016-12-05 03:30:41 · answer #2 · answered by kristofer 4 · 0 0

If your great-grandfather was James IV, you have an exceptionally long-lived family - since he died in 1513, that means that your parents and grandparents must have waited until they were about 250 years old before they had children.

Assuming that you're missing a few "greats" there - in general, the legitimate children of reigning monarchs are called Prince or Princess. However, if your ancestry is through illegitimate offspring (and James IV of Scotland had at least one, who was later made Earl of Moray), then the royal designation would not apply. You'd have to know whether your ancestry was legitimate or not to know whether there were any Princes or Princesses there.

2007-05-01 04:27:25 · answer #3 · answered by JerH1 7 · 1 0

Take the case of Her Royal Highness, The Princess Royal, The Princess Anne of Great Britain. Here two children are simply known as Mr. Peter Philips and Ms. Zara Philips and their father was Captain Mark Philips.

They inherited no titles because their mother was female and their father refused to be given a Earl (Count) or Duke title. Therefore the Queens own grandchildren have NO TITLES, but are simply addressed as any commoner.

2007-05-01 07:59:46 · answer #4 · answered by AdamKadmon 7 · 1 0

Yes, the title Princess is reserved (depending on the monarchy) to the children and grandchildren of the monarch or in other cases inherited through the father.

For Scotland, this would be subject to the English Letter's Patent which grants the title only to the monarch, her children and grandchildren.

In lieu of that, the title stops. In addition, you may note that James had a lot of "illigitimate" children and they would not have been titled.

2007-04-30 14:58:13 · answer #5 · answered by hemmerrocks101 3 · 1 0

I don't have much to add except for a web site. This way you can do a little more on-line research. Then, like another person said, do some research with a proven reliable source.
This should start you off with all the Kings and Queens of Scotland, and a little about them and their kin.

2007-05-01 18:57:01 · answer #6 · answered by Chipilona 6 · 1 0

The only way to find out if you are really from Royalty is to have your family history researched by a professional genealogical society,like Debrett's,which specializes in Royal and aristocratic lineage.Just call your relatives by their surnames until you have proof from a reputable genealogical society that they were entitled to use any form of royal honorific.

2007-04-30 15:36:17 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Not if they were illegitimate. Just because they are through that bloodline doesn't mean they were 'born on the right side of the sheets."

2007-05-01 08:45:38 · answer #8 · answered by D 6 · 0 0

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