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9 answers

The only way for an object NOT experiencing parallax is if: a: that object is the furthest object away, and there are no other objects *behind* it to observe apparent movement, and b: if the amount of movement observed is not perceptible.

2007-04-30 13:01:06 · answer #1 · answered by quantumclaustrophobe 7 · 0 0

As long as there is something further away along the same line of sight, there will always be parallax. However, whether or not you can detect it depends how far you move and what you use to detect it.

If, for example, you put two objects in a line two feet apart and then stand six feet away along the same line, you won't have to move every far to see the parallax. However, if you went two miles way you'd have a job detecting the parallax unless you moved a very long way to the side or had very sensitive instruments.

The only way you can have absolutely no parallax is to have nothing else in the same line of sight. Detectable parallax depends on how far away you are and what you have to measure it with. Stellar parallax is so small that it was not observed routinely until we had much better optical instruments at our disposal

2007-04-30 19:10:03 · answer #2 · answered by T O 3 · 0 0

As long as there is something further away along the same line of sight, there will always be parallax. However, whether or not you can detect it depends how far you move and what you use to detect it.

If, for example, you put two objects in a line two feet apart and then stand six feet away along the same line, you won't have to move every far to see the parallax. However, if you went two miles way you'd have a job detecting the parallax unless you moved a very long way to the side or had very sensitive instruments.

The only way you can have absolutely no parallax is to have nothing else in the same line of sight. Detectable parallax depends on how far away you are and what you have to measure it with. Stellar parallax is so small that it was not observed routinely until we had much better optical instruments at our disposal.

2007-04-30 18:45:52 · answer #3 · answered by Jason T 7 · 0 0

Yes, no *measurable* parallax. As the previous posts have explained, the question depends on instrumentation. Measuring the parallax to the first star was a huge research effort that spanned two centuries. Everyone failed till the early 19th century.

The technique consists of taking measurements 6 months apart. You take one angle measurement on June 1 and another January 1 and if you know the orbital motion of the Earth you can calculate the parallax measurement. But that is only if you have sufficiently well engineered equipment. The crude telescopes of the 18th and 17th centuries couldn't do it. German engineering finally caught up to the task in the early 19th century and the first guy who successfully measured a star was not believed because the distance seemed too far. And he was only approximately correct. (There's a good diagram on Wikipedia.)

We can now do much better but the effective limit on parallax, if I recall, is about 1,000 light years with today's technology. Beyond that alternative estimation techniques must be used. In the abstract sense there is always a teensy weensy bit of parallax but I can imagine situation where the parallax effect might be less than the oscillation in a light wave which perhaps would be the limit of the technique regardless of how good one's equipment is.

This is a pretty good question.

2007-04-30 19:01:57 · answer #4 · answered by gn 4 · 1 0

There would always be parallax. However at some point we do not have the instruments to measure it. So the question should really be:

Is it possible that you could move so far from an object that there would be no measureable parallax.

The answer is yes as the resolution of our telescopes are only so good.

2007-04-30 18:46:05 · answer #5 · answered by rscanner 6 · 0 0

Yes. Parallax is measured against background objects (stars) that are *very* far away. These far objects act as reference points so we can measure the distance to closer objects using the parallax technique.

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2007-04-30 18:44:04 · answer #6 · answered by tlbs101 7 · 0 0

Yes, it is possible that you could be so far away from an object that your optical and scientific instruments would no longer be able to measure the parallax.

2007-04-30 21:35:11 · answer #7 · answered by zahbudar 6 · 0 0

Many good answers. Any instrument of finite diameter has a finite resolution capability, which automatically sets a theoretical limit on the minimum detectable angular displacement and therefore how far out you can measure the angular displacement from parallax for any given baseline separation. Of course, a sufficiently large instrument or interferometer might reach out close to the edge of the visible universe.

All this of course assumes euclidean geometry. Unfortunately, GR allows initially parallel light rays to converge or diverge over sufficient distance if the universe isn't flat. Painful to think how that might twist things up.

2007-04-30 21:00:51 · answer #8 · answered by SAN 5 · 0 0

Parallax will never stop...
If you look at something far away and it doesnt seem to have parallax it is because you have too small of a baseline.

2007-04-30 19:21:16 · answer #9 · answered by Cassandra H 2 · 0 0

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