2007-04-30 00:56:44 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Custom and usage really. Either expression is technically correct. But the use of "s'" as opposed to "s's" has only come about in the 20th century. Before that, "s's" was quite common. You'll see if often in older manuscripts.
Personal opinion about why the signs remain in the old style??? I think it's to re-emphasize the correct name. When you see "St James's" you naturally verbalize it correctly as "St. Jameses," whereas, the more modern style leads people simply to verbalize it as "St. James," leaving off the extra syllable at the end. Just an opinion though; I could be wrong.
Cheers, mate.
2007-04-30 01:01:06 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
It is because if it was St James' Park it would translated as the park belonging to St James whereas it is actually the park named after St James, both are not grammatically correct in the English language for the above reasons.
2007-05-03 04:55:27 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Back in ancient times (ca. 1970) it was considered that, a name which ended in an 's', like James, was ugly and difficult to pronounce with the apostrophe plus 's'. It was customary to ignore the additional 's' and also not to write it and so it was St. James' Park.Since the demise of this tradition in the UK, it is now permissible to write 'St. James's and to pronounce it as such. So we now have something like St. Jameses Park.
Is it Kings Cross or King's Cross?
I might be a purist, but English is a living language so we traditionalists have to move with the times.
2007-04-30 01:16:14 · answer #3 · answered by cymry3jones 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I was looking at a tube map the other day and wondering the same thing. I always thought it was correct to say James' but apparently either way is acceptable. I do think that James' is better though personally!
2007-04-30 01:01:39 · answer #4 · answered by OriginalBubble 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Was there more than one St James which would make it plural? Just a question to answer a question, that's always good.
2007-04-30 01:59:24 · answer #5 · answered by ourgang8 1 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Most likely because James was already his last name. The possessive when attached to a name is always the name the way it is spelt with the 's. The other form is plural. Just like if someone had the last name of Jones.....the "s" is already part of the name.
2007-04-30 01:05:59 · answer #6 · answered by Lizard 4 · 0⤊ 2⤋
I don't know why, but either is correct grammatically.
Chow!
2007-04-30 01:25:50 · answer #7 · answered by No one 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
i really don't know
2007-05-03 04:38:16 · answer #8 · answered by hyperoil 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋