2007-04-29 22:52:48 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Yes. If you multiply -1/sqrt2 by sqrt2/sqrt2 (which is just equal to 1), you get (-1*sqrt2)/(sqrt2*sqrt2) or -sqrt2/2
2007-04-29 22:56:40 · answer #1 · answered by mwebbshs 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. One must multiply both the numerator and denominator by (sqrt) 2.
When one does, (sqrt)2/2 is the result.
.
2007-04-29 23:01:43 · answer #2 · answered by Robert L 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes.
if -1/sqrt(2) is multiplied and divided by sqrt(2)
-1 x sqrt(2)/ sqrt(2) x sqrt(2)
=
1sqrt(2)/ 2 since square of (sqrt(n) = n
2007-04-29 23:14:33 · answer #3 · answered by madhavidhande 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
YES!
if you multiply both numerator and denominator by (sqrt)2
you get -(sqrt)2/2
2007-04-30 00:59:46 · answer #4 · answered by dabrapo 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
(-1) / √2 = ((-1).√2) / (√2 x √2) = - √2 / 2
(which agrees with your answer)
2007-04-29 23:02:16 · answer #5 · answered by Como 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes
Multiply both top and bottom by sqrt2 and it works.
Because -1 on top becomes -(squrt)2
Bottom sqrt2 becomes sqrt2 times sqrt2 which makes 2.
i keep writing squirt...
Good luck!
2007-04-29 22:58:21 · answer #6 · answered by katy 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes. u just multiply and devide (multily both numerator and denominator) with sqaure root of 2
2007-04-29 22:58:56 · answer #7 · answered by absentmindednik 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
2 = (sqrt2)^2 so you can cancel the sqrt2 on top with one of those on the bottom.
2016-05-17 07:34:53 · answer #8 · answered by catalina 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋