2007-04-29 21:11:09 · 9 answers · asked by √ẫηΣşşẫ 5 in Entertainment & Music ➔ Polls & Surveys
Most of the time not. A lot of properties only include so many feet below the ground. A person can buy a piece of property cheaper if they give up their mineral rights. That just means that somebody has the right to sell any minerals or oil found underneath the property.
2007-04-29 21:18:38 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, they do unless they sell the mineral rights.
They also own the airspace up to space.
My 4 acres include a huge chunk of the earth and a whole lot of air.
I wonder if I can subdivide it?
2007-04-30 04:15:20 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. Because if you want to put in an inground pool or something you have to get a permit and pay extra on your homeowners insurance. My dad had to do that and all he was building was a deck on the back of his house. It's crap.
2007-04-30 04:16:16 · answer #3 · answered by Amanda 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Good point - I suppose legally you would.
Now all you needed was to strike oil on your land and dig deep so it can make you heaps of $
2007-04-30 04:16:00 · answer #4 · answered by • Koala • uʍop ɹǝpun 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
not usually, no. mineral rights often go to the city/state. depends on the location and the local laws, but very rarely do you own it all.
2007-04-30 04:14:40 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not all the way down. That's being too selfish.
No one really owns it.
2007-04-30 04:25:49 · answer #6 · answered by ? 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Probably, let's find out! LOL
2007-04-30 14:47:41 · answer #7 · answered by riodejaneirofun 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no !! YOU WOULD ONLY OWN ABOUT A METRE OF GROUND UNDER THE TOP OF THE SOIL !!!!! AS FAR AS YOUR NEAREST PIPE JOINT UNDERGROUND!!!
2007-04-30 04:19:20 · answer #8 · answered by Spanky the monkey !!! 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i better for the price i paid
2007-04-30 04:14:38 · answer #9 · answered by kat_luvr2003 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋