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There are very few sections in the bible that touch on this topic. I will detail them for you.

Leviticus 18:22

"Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination."

This verse may actually mean that a man is not to have sex with a man.

Of course, it does not say anything about a man wanting to have sex with a man, a man loving a man, or lesbianism in any form. Might I also point out that this chapter of Leviticus is also where incest and beastiality are condemned. Leviticus is also the book that tells us not to lets our cows mingle with our sheep, not to plant corn and pumpkins in the same field, and not to wear poly cotton blended fabric, or linen, wool blended fabric...

Lev 19:19 Ye shall keep my statutes. Thou shalt not let thy cattle gender with a diverse kind: thou shalt not sow thy field with mingled seed: neither shall a garment mingled of linen and woollen come upon thee.

Not only that, it also tells us not to shave our sideburns, not to get tattoos, not to shave beards, and not to eat cheeseburgers. In fact, Leviticus is a book of laws, 95% of which christians conveniently ignore, as do most jews.

It is only the orthodox jews who conform to most of these laws, which is why they look as they do, and act as they do.

The word "homosexual" did not actually exist in any of the scripture that became the bible. It can only be found in modern versions of the bible, such as the New International Version. The verse in question is 1 Corinthians 6:9, which in the NIV reads:

"Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders"

However, in the King James Version, this same verse reads:

"Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind"

Comparing the two, "effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind" becomes "male prostitutes, nor homosexual offenders"

Why is this? Well the scripture wasn't written in English. It was written in Greek and must be translated. The problem is, the exact meaning of some of the words were not known and the way the scholar chose to interpret the word may depend on the mentality of the time. A knowlegable scholar will not deny what I am about to say.

In the Greek version, the word that had been translated into "effeminate" and "male prostitutes" is "malakos"

Malakos literally means "soft". It is not known with certainty what was meant by this. It is a well known fact that there was a time in ancient Greek culture that the practice of homosexuality was the norm. It could very well have meant "effeminate" because while the Greeks had no problem with men being lovers, they did have a problem with men being effminate. Being effeminate was not synonymous with homosexuality. Greek men were expected to act like men, whether or not they had a male lover.

Now lets look at the what became "abusers of themselves with mankind" and "homosexual offenders"

This was translated from the word "arsenkoites"
Many people speculate that Paul invented this word. Some think, given the context when combined with malakos, that he was talking about temple prostitutes, or generally the exploitation of young boys by men. This word is found nowhere else in the bible and, as far as I know, no where else, period. There is nothing to suggest it means homosexuals as we know them.

Two more places in the bible people like tio cite when talking about homosexuality. Romans 1, and the infamous story of Sodom.

Romans 1:26-27.

" 26For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:

27And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet. "

It's best to read the whole chapter to get the context of this.

Romans was written by Paul as he made preparations to travel and preach. More information on the book itself can be found here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/epistle_to_...

In this time, when Paul was traveling, christians were a minority. Paul lived in a world where many people still worshipped Gods and Goddesses and prostitution and orgies were common in some areas, as a temple activity.

It is curious that Paul reasons in this letter that men lusted for men, and women lusted for women, and then as a punishment, God either made them desire eachother, or "gave them up to desire" for eachother.

What was probably going on here was that Paul was trying to make sense of this strange culture he encountered, and found to be alien to him, and thus unnatural.

The last reference people make to homosexuality in the bible is in the story of Sodom, or Sodom and Gomorrah, though there were actually more cities.

The story goes, God wanted to destroy the cities because they were immoral, wicked places, but Abraham plead with him not to. God said that if he could find 10 righteous people in the city then he would spare them, and so sent two angels in the form of men, to Sodom, to seek out righteousness.

On arrival, the angels were noticed by Lot, and he invited them to his house for food, drink, and rest. Once there, the men of the city, seeing Lot had strangers at his house, surrounded the house and demanded Lot give him the men so that they may defile them (xenophobia was common in these times). Lot refused and offered his daughters instead, but the men of the city refused this and called for the two men. Subsequently, God destroyed the city, not finding anyone to be righteous there but Lot, who he spared.

The men of the city wanted to rape the angels, who were in the form of men, and this is what many people focus on. However, it was not the fact that men wanted to rape men, but the fact that the men of the city were inhospitable to strangers that was the sin. Or it was one of many sins anyway. The issue of the sins of Sodom is addressed many places in the bible.

Ezekiel 16:49-50: Now this was the sin of Sodom: She and her daughters were arrogant, overfed and unconcerned; they did not help the poor and needy. They were haughty and did detestable things before me. Therefore I did away with them as you have seen.

Matthew 10:14-15: If anyone will not welcome you or listen to your words, shake the dust off your feet when you leave that home or town. I tell you the truth, it will be more bearable for Sodom and Gomorrah on the day of judgment than for that town.

So is being gay, etc a sin? No. The only thing which may be sinful, according to Leviticus, is gay sex between two men.
It is really such an obscure topic in the bible to get so much attention.

2007-05-01 14:18:56 · answer #1 · answered by minuteblue 6 · 1 0

A lot of Christians would say so. But the Bible says a lot of things are sins which they don't believe are sins now. They apply the Bible selectively to suit their own preferences.

It's not a sin though. If two people expressing love in the manner in which they naturally desire to express it is a sin, then that's a pretty warped belief system.

2007-04-29 21:33:53 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

For the Bible? Yes, like eating shellfish (bible says eating shellfish is an abomination...), in compensation raping women is not a sin, and killing an unfaithful wife neither (on the contrary, it suggests it, like act of justice).

P.S. "The best cure for Christianity is reading the Bible"
Mark Twain

2007-04-30 00:03:49 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

No.

Created in the image of the one God and equally endowed with rational souls, all men have the same nature and the same origin. Redeemed by the sacrifice of Christ, all are called to participate in the same divine beatitude: all therefore enjoy an equal dignity.

The Catholic Church believes there is nothing sinful about being homosexual. But homosexuals like all unmarried people are called to celibacy.

The Church specifically says that homosexuals "must be accepted with respect, compassion, and sensitivity. Every sign of unjust discrimination in their regard should be avoided."

With love in Christ.

2007-04-30 18:50:54 · answer #4 · answered by imacatholic2 7 · 1 0

a sin is to perform a amoral choice, such as stealing or murdering someone.

but as sexuality isn't a choice, it can't really be a sin, and if you're religious, then you'd know that god made and loves you the way you are.

most people who think it's a sin, do so because they don't understand that sexuality isn't a choice, and how could they, the only way they could really know is by being born gay/lesbian themselves.

2007-04-29 21:51:54 · answer #5 · answered by §ilver 5 · 0 0

Read it and see. Then see if you believe it. Read all the other things that are supposed to be sins. See if you think there is anything there that seems ridiculous and antiquated. Then try to live up to it all. Or treat it with the caution and skepticism it requires.

2007-04-29 23:03:50 · answer #6 · answered by st.uncumber 3 · 1 0

What's your point? Are Straight people sinners too? So it's not whether you are Gay or not, it's whether you trust God through Jesus Christ or not. We are all covered by the sacrifice of Jesus if we trust God to save us from His wrath.

For those people asking this question, or perhaps condemning you, it's rhetoric. Jesus provided the covering for sin, Gay or not. Period. The question really is, do you trust God for your salvation or not?

2007-04-29 22:41:12 · answer #7 · answered by Christian Sinner 7 · 2 0

Yes it is a sin.

Daren A is sorely mistaken about Muslims. There is nothing in the Qur'an or Hadith (written traditions) that says it is a sin to be anything but Muslim. In fact, they live among Jews and Christians and get along just fine.

In Egypt, Sinai, there is St Catherine's church, which is a tourist spot. Priests and monks live there, and Muslims work there. They get along swimmingly, there is no animosity there. Also, Cairo has lots of churches and lots of Christians, appx 10-20% of the population is Christian.

In Islam, there is no compulsion in religion. Period.

2007-04-29 21:48:26 · answer #8 · answered by Dolores G. Llamas 6 · 0 4

*Be true to your own conscience, Grasshopper. It is there for a reason, and it is customised for YOUR life. If you believe that it is a sin, then don't go there. Your conscience should be your compass on life's journey.
Good luck.

2007-04-29 21:54:28 · answer #9 · answered by Angelpaws 5 · 1 0

I guess if you believe in the Bible, then it is. If not, you decide. Then again it is a sin to Muslims if you're anything but Muslim. Get my drift here?

2007-04-29 21:39:48 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

Hebrews 13:4 NIV •
Marriage should be honored by all, and the marriage bed kept pure, for God will judge the adulterer and all the sexually immoral.

2007-04-30 03:06:24 · answer #11 · answered by Lin B 3 · 0 2

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