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I'm pretty sure it involves substitution and the fact that (cos(x))^2 = 1 - (sin(x))^2.

Please help me ***understand*** this.

2007-04-29 17:32:23 · 5 answers · asked by RogerDodger 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

I want to understand how this is done.

2007-04-29 17:32:49 · update #1

5 answers

∫(cos(x))^5 dx
=∫(cos(x))^4 cosx dx
=∫((cos^2 (x))^2) cosx dx
=∫(1-sin^2 (x))^2 cosx dx
let sinx=u
=∫(1-u^2)^2 du
=∫ (1+u^4-2u^2)du
=u+u^5/5-2u^3/3
=sinx+1/5 * sin^5 (x) -2/3*sin^3 (x) +C

2007-04-29 17:42:45 · answer #1 · answered by iyiogrenci 6 · 1 1

Hey,

Yes, understanding is the key. So here we go

cos(x) ^5 dx = cos(x)^4 cos(x) dx = cos(x)^4 d(sin(x))

Right? since d sin(x) = cos(x) dx

The equation above in turn is nothing else but (as you mentioned)

(1-sin(x)^2)^2 d(sin(x)) which is the same as (1 - y^2)^2 dy which is trivially integrated now since this is a polynomial

The answer is const + y -2/3 *y^3 + 1/5 y^5 where y = sin(x)

2007-04-30 00:40:42 · answer #2 · answered by Dmitry P 2 · 1 1

You are on the right track. Rewrite the original integral as ((cos(x))^2)^2 * cos(x)
then use your trig identity to replace the (cos(x))^2

2007-04-30 00:38:42 · answer #3 · answered by Demiurge42 7 · 1 1

back up in ur study of calculas with a minor in algebraics

2007-04-30 00:36:03 · answer #4 · answered by ? 5 · 1 1

what you do is go buy a scientific calculator and let it do the work for you

2007-04-30 00:35:24 · answer #5 · answered by ? 2 · 0 1

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