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2007-04-29 13:18:14 · 8 answers · asked by Peter P 1 in Arts & Humanities History

8 answers

It allowed Hitler to take what he wanted without a fight, which obviously enboldened him to demand more. Why would one stop demanding AT ANY POINT IN TIME when demanding has proven to be so effectively rewarding in the past?
Why stop? It's working!

It created a false sense of security in those that would oppose him, thus allowing him to catch Britain and others unaware.

It, no doubt, enboldened Japan to continue it's expansionism as well as they considered how effective it was serving Hitler.

Appeasement will yield the same results for terrorists today if left unchallenged.

2007-04-29 13:32:39 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

At the Munich conference in 1938, Neville Chamberlain, then prime minister of Great Britain, informed Hitler that Nazi Germany would be allowed to take Czechoslovakia without opposition from Britain and allies, and in addition gave up the Irish Navy ports which would allow German U boats to essentially dominate the waters of the Irish Coast. The idea behind this action was that by giving Hitler those two things, he would be happy with the gift the international community gave to him and commit no further aggression. Chamberlain was gravely mistaken, as Hitler invaded Poland a year later, in September 1st 1939. A year afterwards, Nazi Germany invaded Belgium, France, and the Netherlands, forcing Chamberlain to resign.

The role of appeasement is important because from a tactical standpoint, had Chamberlain stood up to Hitler and denied his aggressive aspirations, Germany would have been in a much worse position to fight a war if confined to it's national borders than if it had invaded another five countries spanning the entire continent. Because of Chamberlains actions, Germany was allowed to secure strategic points in nearly every country it had invaded, thus forcing the allies to fight an uphill battle at nearly every front. Had Chamberlain told Hitler that such an invasion would have triggered war, WWII might not have happened because from a tactical perspective, Germany would not have been able to effectively mount an invasion of a foreign country when faced with a strong military response from Britain, France, Poland, Netherlands, Czechoslovakia, and possibly the United States. They would have been crushed the second they stepped over the line. Without appeasement, there likely wouldn't have been a Second World War.

2007-04-29 13:50:29 · answer #2 · answered by ? 1 · 1 0

Well the cause of World War Two in Europe was Adolf Hitler and all that Appeasement do was to A) Give tacit approval to Hitler's aggressive designs on his neighbor's turf, B) give Hitler & Germany time to build up their forces for 'total' war, and C) Give Germany vast resources 'free' from messy expendictures such as blood & equipment, such as the Sudenten Land which not only had mineral resources but factories, all handed over without a fight.

Appeasement did not cause World War Two but it provided Hitler & Copmpany effortless conquests & time to plan even more brutal conquests.

Peace....

2007-04-29 13:29:00 · answer #3 · answered by JVHawai'i 7 · 1 0

I thought it was allowing Hitler to do his thing without real consequence ie He invade Austria...no prob, he then went into Czeckoslivakia....no problem....after all the appeasing that Britain and France gave Hitler, I don't think he thought he was going to have any problems invading poland as well...but no Britain/France etc finally decided Hitler was not doing all the nice things he said he was and declared war against Germany.

2007-04-29 17:08:51 · answer #4 · answered by mareeclara 7 · 0 0

Sounds like Peter needs his homework done. :-)

1. The wests appeasement of Hitler allowed him to take Poland, and ultimately take most of Europe.

2. The west also turned a blind eye (for a while) to Japan's walking through China, Burma, etc.

3. Stalin's treaty with Hitler - and the invasion of Europe.

I'll let you look up the back up facts yourself. :-) Good luck!

2007-04-29 13:25:36 · answer #5 · answered by bigsave2 3 · 0 0

What Is Appeasement Ww2

2016-10-16 12:22:32 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I think some conflict was inevitable. The problem was the timing. It is possible that, if Hitler had been resisted firmly earlier his short term ambitions would have been curtailed. However, it is unlikely that he would have been deposed. His ambitions would have remained and would, in my view, have resulted in a war of some sort at some stage.

2007-04-29 13:40:49 · answer #7 · answered by iansand 7 · 1 0

by just letting Hitler do whatever he wanted to do without punishment or consequences.

2007-04-29 17:33:30 · answer #8 · answered by dolphindemonbrat 1 · 0 0

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