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Background:

Some people ------ which includes a minority but very loud group of 'true' heterosexuals and some 'gay' identified males, and some women ------ make the claim that most men are heterosexuals and react aggressively when shown evidence to the contrary.

The minority of males who are 'true' exclusive heterosexuals claim that since they haven't gone through any pressure to be exclusively heterosexual, no one does. And so they claim that being exclusive heterosexual is the majority....... and thus 'straight'.

They claim, people are what they say they are.

How reasonable is this claim, when:

1. The society exerts such extreme pressures on men to be exclusively heterosexual,

2. The consequences of not being (exclusively) heterosexual is so negative and extreme for men,

3. The real men, the majority of straights are disempowered to claim their same-sex needs.

2007-04-29 07:50:18 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Social Science Gender Studies

I'm defining heterosexuality as a constant, and exclusive sexual need for women.

2007-04-29 07:50:42 · update #1

Edumaca, No you won't consider the evidences however strong they are...... I have presented them before, only to have one of you nag about "you're gay!" be "happy"....... you don't want to conisder anything that shows you as queers!

2007-04-29 08:06:40 · update #2

7 answers

I loooooovvvvvve this question! I truly believe that homo-sexuality is inherent in everyone, we are all born bi-sexual to some degree and our preferences are then shaped by 1) freedom of choice 2)environment....I feel the flames.

You should also put for number 4) Repressed homosexuality (especially in the male) has negative consequences for everyone and is acted out by extreme macho"ism" to overcompensate for what society has deemed unmanly. Hemingway was a real "man's man" and I am sorry but I cannot read one novel from the man and not come out thinking he was a repressed homosexual (I am not saying this is a bad thing it is a very very interesting thing that needs to be further explored) and maybe we can get to the roots of misogyny if we can get to this repressed sexuality thing?

2007-04-29 11:29:46 · answer #1 · answered by Yemaya 4 · 3 1

In that context, you're defining sexual preference as just a biologically - determined case. Some people might argue that social influence is the cause for heterosexuality, in which they would also state such influence is natural.

But on the other hand, your reasoning doesnt justify that most men arent heterosexual - only that homosexuality as a minority claim should be put to doubt.

2007-04-29 14:56:02 · answer #2 · answered by leikevy 5 · 2 0

Very very few people are totally straight and very very few people are totally gay. I think that many men (and women) feel that it is easier to act as if they are totally straight, because there is, in fact quite a bit of pressure on them to do so. The vast majority of people are slightly bisexual, but leaning to one side, mostly heterosexual, or mostly homosexual.

2007-05-02 15:58:45 · answer #3 · answered by 4 · 1 0

I think you are most probably correct.
homosexuality is still not outed and practiced openly, and many more men and women are gay than is evident in society.
Good luck

2007-04-29 15:17:56 · answer #4 · answered by Croa 6 · 4 1

Because most of us are normal straight heterosexuals. It just like in religious stuff the few seem to scream loud enough to be heard.

2007-04-29 14:54:57 · answer #5 · answered by ronnny 7 · 3 5

All your point based assertions are false.

Men can be gay if they want and most are not.

With that your whole argument is invalid. Try proving those assertions are valid.

Look at all these feminists admitting they are closet lesbians.

2007-04-29 23:37:23 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 5

What I have seen its that perhaps 2% is "gay.

Back up your "claims" with proof, them prehaps people will take your "claims" seriously.

2007-04-29 15:01:46 · answer #7 · answered by edjumacation 5 · 2 4

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