Background:
Some people ------ which includes a minority but very loud group of 'true' heterosexuals and some 'gay' identified males, and some women ------ make the claim that most men are heterosexuals and react aggressively when shown evidence to the contrary.
The minority of males who are 'true' exclusive heterosexuals claim that since they haven't gone through any pressure to be exclusively heterosexual, no one does. And so they claim that being exclusive heterosexual is the majority....... and thus 'straight'.
They claim, people are what they say they are.
How reasonable is this claim, when:
1. The society exerts such extreme pressures on men to be exclusively heterosexual,
2. The consequences of not being (exclusively) heterosexual is so negative and extreme for men,
3. The real men, the majority of straights are disempowered to claim their same-sex needs.
2007-04-29
07:50:18
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7 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Social Science
➔ Gender Studies
I'm defining heterosexuality as a constant, and exclusive sexual need for women.
2007-04-29
07:50:42 ·
update #1
Edumaca, No you won't consider the evidences however strong they are...... I have presented them before, only to have one of you nag about "you're gay!" be "happy"....... you don't want to conisder anything that shows you as queers!
2007-04-29
08:06:40 ·
update #2