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okay .. its PI^1-x = e^x

then i do ..

1-x ln PI = x ln e
1-x ln PI = x

.. and it goes all downhill from there :( .. what to do next and why? i usually get stuck right here on all the problems .. what is the property i need to know?

2007-04-28 15:41:54 · 4 answers · asked by M 3 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

4 answers

Are you solving for x?

pi^(1-x) = e^x
(1-x)ln pi = x
ln pi - xln pi = x
ln pi = x + xln pi
ln pi = x(1 + ln pi)
ln pi/(1 + ln pi) = x

You almost had it! You seem to understand your logs, don't forget to go back to the basics now and then!

2007-04-28 15:46:53 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

ok... here's what you do...

you did good so far. You need to gather up all the x's on the same side of the equal sign, so here's what I'd do from the last step.

(1-x) ln pi = x
ln pi - x ln pi = x
ln pi = x + x ln pi
ln pi = x(1 + ln pi)
(ln pi) / (1 + ln pi) = x

so there ya go...

x = (ln pi) / (1 + ln pi)

2007-04-28 15:48:45 · answer #2 · answered by Anthony T 3 · 1 0

First let´s write it right
Pl^(1-x)=e^x
now take ln
(1-x)lnPL =x Apply distributive rule
Pl= x(1+lnPl)
so x= lnPl/(1+lnPl)

2007-04-28 15:48:39 · answer #3 · answered by santmann2002 7 · 0 1

pi^(1 - x) = e^x
(1 - x)ln(pi) = xln(e)
ln(pi) - xln(pi) = x
-x - xln(pi) = ln(pi)
-x(1 + ln(pi)) = -ln(pi)
x(1 + ln(pi)) = ln(pi)
x = ln(pi)/(1 + ln(pi))

all you needed to do is multiply ln(pi) by (1 - x), then solve for x.

2007-04-28 19:36:39 · answer #4 · answered by Sherman81 6 · 0 0

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