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Here's a maths riddle:

How can a = b when both of them are of different numbers?

P.s. No such things like a = 2/4, b = 1/2 or a = 1/2 b = 0.5 (Well you get what I mean)

Can you solve it?

2007-04-27 19:20:04 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

Also no units behind the number. Dont follow the first answerer lol

2007-04-27 19:28:32 · update #1

Lol check here in about one day's time to know the answer....I think you will find it interesting :D

2007-04-27 19:38:50 · update #2

~~ANSWER~~

a = 0.99 recurring (0.999999....)
b = 1

ok why is 0.99 recurring equals to 1?

a = 0.99999...
10a = 9.999999....
9a = 9 (This is valid isnt it, if u look carefully)
Therefore a = 1

2007-04-28 18:34:33 · update #3

11 answers

1/3=0.3333333333......

1/3 times 3=1

0.333333333333... times 3=0.99999999999999.....

therefore 0.99999999999999....=1

also, 1/9=.111111111111....2/9=.2222222222222222.....
3/9=.3333333333333333....etc....
9/9 should follow the sequence and be .99999999999999...
but it's 1

2007-05-03 12:13:08 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous 4 · 1 0

Oh ya, how can H20 = water, when they are both different words. Sometimes we use different words to name the same thing. In mathematics there are very good reasons for doing so. a and b may be numbers, but they are also variables, whose value(s) are unknown or to be determined.
If a = b they are the same numbers, not diffrent numbers. They are just being represented by two different symbols (letters).
Out of all possible numbers a, and all possible numbers b, we wish to choose one (or more) numbers which are equal.
If A and B are two intersecting lines, where do they cross? At a point where a point on Line A is also a point on Line B. As we move point-by-point along line A and point-by-point along line B we reach a point, the intersection, where the points are equal (the same point). Get the point?

2007-05-05 05:48:09 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

a=1, b=1;
a=2, b=10;
a=3, b=11;
a=4, b=100;
a=5, b=101;
etc., etc.
In all five cases, a=b in value, where "a" is in the decimal system, and "b" in the binary system. In other words, a is equivalent to b. So, a = b .

2007-05-04 19:41:19 · answer #3 · answered by jimmy 7 · 1 0

repeating decimals extend out to an infinite number of places so therefore cannot be treated like real numbers.
that is why the proof is flawed, which is similar to the 1=2 proof that i've seen before in which 0 is essentially divided from both sides producing an invalid answer.

2007-05-05 09:03:41 · answer #4 · answered by iamaspursfanatic 3 · 0 0

input for a microwave oven:
60 = 100, 61 = 101 ... 99 = 139

input that is 100 or over is treated as minutes

-- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- --
i'm not satisfied with your answer to your riddle. i'm not saying that i disagree that 0.9 (repeating) isn't equal to 1, but you broke your own rules.

effectively you're saying that:
sum(9/10^x,x=1 to inf) = 1 which is merely a whole bunch of fractions, which was not allowed (in your post script).

2007-04-27 19:50:17 · answer #5 · answered by James H 2 · 1 0

It all depends on the units you attach to the number.

27 ft. = 9 yards
32 oz. = 2 lbs

etc.

Doug

2007-04-27 19:25:41 · answer #6 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 1 0

easy way is that 2/4 can be simplified to 1/2

2007-05-05 15:59:16 · answer #7 · answered by xmashi 3 · 0 0

maybe is when we divide or multiple with some number until they end equal i am not so sure about this so please tell us the answer.

2007-04-28 04:55:19 · answer #8 · answered by anastasia 2 · 0 0

log3 (9) = 2? LOL

2007-04-27 19:45:31 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

how about when ...
a=c, and
b=c, so then

a=b
I don't know, do you know?

the equal sign means the numbers have to be equal, right!!!

2007-04-27 19:32:14 · answer #10 · answered by hpage 3 · 0 1

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