The 2nd Amenmdment states: "A well regulated Militia being necessary to the security of a free State(1), the right of the People(2) to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed."
(1) This is a debatable point.
(2) As originally framed by Congress, certain commas and capitalizations altered. Among these were "Arms" became "arms", and "people" became "People".
Firstly, does selling guns without background checks to anyone with the ready cash have anything to do with the 2nd Amendment?
Secondly, for what reason did the states capitalize the "p" of "people"? Was it to ensure any psycho with a grudge could justify themselves as constituting a "well regulated Militia"?
Lastly, do state and federal forces, in their bearing of arms, not constitute a "well regulated Militia"?
2007-04-27
16:12:01
·
5 answers
·
asked by
Master Anarchy
2
in
News & Events
➔ Current Events