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2007-04-27 05:32:10 · 9 answers · asked by princesspetuniapeaches 1 in Social Science Economics

9 answers

Vodka.

2007-04-27 05:34:57 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 3

Because Western Europe did away with servitude a long time before Russia did; in Russia, servitude was abolished only in 1861. So the merchant class that carried out the bulk of industrialization in Western Europe and eventually took political power away from the military aristocracy never developed to that extent in Russia.

The only merchant republic Russia ever had, Novgorod, was sacked by Ivan the Terrible in 1570. Attempts to call a parliament after repealing the Polish invasion in 1610s were foiled by the gentry. Around 1700, Peter I actually attempted servitude in industry with very limited success. As late as in early 1900s, the wealthiest Russian merchants were those who won rights to administer government monopolies, of which there were quite a few...

2007-04-27 14:16:12 · answer #2 · answered by NC 7 · 2 0

The Feudal system still reigned under the Czars, and then even when they loosened those strictures, the society wasn't ready to adapt. People condemned anyone who tried to change things. Finally, when the Communists took over, it threw everything back into almost a Feudalist mode again, with centralized control. Central control doesn't allow for innovations, so communism held back the EFFECTIVE industrialization, even while increasing the industrialization. In other words, it made the industries less competitive and less efficient, and more wasteful. So, it also stymied progress. Finally, today, the nation is struggling with corruption and heavy regulation, which is again limiting their growth.

2007-04-28 09:22:49 · answer #3 · answered by skip742 6 · 0 0

On top of the good answers about Russia being late to abandon servitude...and disregarding the misinformed answers about communism...

I would add the vast space that Russia occupies. Trade between cities, mobility of labor, and infrastructure costs (roads) were all an issue in Russia's industrialization.

Long, hard winters also impede economic growth. Industrialization requires a surplus of food, which was harder to generate in Russia.

Finally, the big furry hats that cover people's ears made it harder for them to hear and learn how to build factories.

2007-04-27 15:08:09 · answer #4 · answered by Bjorkmeister 5 · 0 0

Ignore all those who blame communism -- Russia became communist in the 20th century. And it industrialized after becoming communist. (People just don't know history, do they?)

The question is, why didn't they industrialize before then?

There's an answer that talks about servitude that's right.

Russia was a feudal society, where most of the population were tied to the land, farming.

There was hardly any middle class, who were the ones who drove industrialization elsewhere.

2007-04-27 14:28:06 · answer #5 · answered by tehabwa 7 · 1 0

Because Russia had been a Communist state for such a long time whereas Western Europe has completely different forms of government that would comply with industrialization.

2007-04-27 12:40:20 · answer #6 · answered by Anna A 1 · 0 1

there are a lot of reasons, but basically Russian was not quite as technologically advanced as many of the western european states. A lot of times they we trying to turn farm towns in to factory towns over night... China had a similar problem in their industrialization period

2007-04-27 12:36:27 · answer #7 · answered by IAN 3 · 0 0

Because of the former Communist government.

2007-04-27 12:35:11 · answer #8 · answered by Jimbo 3 · 0 1

Communsim deters hard work and they were communist.

2007-04-27 13:16:39 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

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