I suppose that the members of the royal family and above all the queen must be neutral, but really I don't know.
2007-04-26 17:35:09 · 4 answers · asked by lucho 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Royalty
I think hemmerock is largely right, but would have thought the Queen could only vote in local and European elections. Since technically she is part of parliament (albeit a part which only attends once a year) she does not need an MP. Similarly, princes like the Dukes of Edinburgh, York, Kent and Gloucester definitely could note vote before 1999 as they sat in the House of Lords and thus had no reason to vote for a representative in the House of Commons.
2007-04-27 06:46:45 · answer #1 · answered by Dunrobin 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
According to the British Parliament website, The Queen and the family MAY vote but do not exercise this right. Traditionally they do note vote because they remain outside of the political process (they do not even comment publically on political issues) as she is only the constitutional monarch with very limited duties and powers.
2007-04-26 19:02:37 · answer #2 · answered by hemmerrocks101 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No they are outside the democratic process.
Democracy is just for the subjects.
2007-04-26 18:23:57 · answer #3 · answered by brainstorm 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No they are exempt by privilage
2007-04-26 20:42:17 · answer #4 · answered by Val K 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋