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2007-04-25 18:54:09 · 6 answers · asked by VILAS S 1 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

6 answers

In U.S.A. In 1862 the 37th United States Congress and President Abraham Lincoln enacted the Morrill Anti-Bigamy Act anti-polygamy law which made the practice of polygamy illegal in U.S. territories. But India the Indian Penal Code,1860 made the bigamous or polygamous marriage punishable offence under section 494 & 495 of the said code. Hence I can say India was the first country to ban polygamy.

2007-04-25 22:10:58 · answer #1 · answered by vijay m Indian Lawyer 7 · 0 0

Since the Han Dynasty (206 BC–220 AD), technically, Chinese men could have only one wife. Properly, by law - after the fall of Imperial China and the success of Communist Revolution in 1949, polygamy was banned. This occured via the Marriage Act of 1953.

2007-04-30 15:55:46 · answer #2 · answered by pepper 7 · 0 0

Hindu Marriage Act 1955 legislated by multi religious (Muslims, Christians, Jews, Sikhs, Jains, Buddhists and Hindus, etc.) Members of Parliament banned polygamy in 1955 for Hindus, and not the pre or extramarital sexual activities. Till then it was not punishable or banned despite sections 494 and 495 (bigamy) of Indian Penal Code enacted by the British Government in India in 1860, as the void subsequent marriage was punished. Such subsequent marriage was not void for Hindus till 1955.

2007-05-01 18:04:57 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Seems it was first banned in Illinois in1839-44. So that means the US was the first to ban it.

2007-04-26 02:15:47 · answer #4 · answered by Rizza 3 · 0 0

UNITED STATES OF AMERICA BAN POLYGAMY.

2007-04-29 05:19:12 · answer #5 · answered by RAMAN IOBIAN 7 · 0 0

non islamic country

2007-04-30 14:08:45 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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