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please try to explain, if its possible, thank you.

2007-04-25 12:20:15 · 8 answers · asked by David F 2 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

8 answers

There's a saying, "hate crime, not criminals"; music remains music and has got nothing to do with criminals or non criminals. The only logic against listening to anyone's music can be that if the revenue earned by some music is used to spread or commit crime. Otherwise there's no harm in listening to any sort of music.

2007-04-25 12:32:01 · answer #1 · answered by Maria 2 · 0 0

Unless there is some direct link between the music and the problematic activity, there shouldn't be a moral problem. The only example I can think of is if the revenue from their music is used to fund illegal/immoral activities. Assuming the music is amoral, supporting the amoral activity doesn't equate to supporting the individual's other, immoral activities. Buying Michael Jackson's music (to use someone else's example) doesn't influence his pedophilic activities, so why would his pedophilic activities prevent you from buying his music?

2007-04-25 12:40:25 · answer #2 · answered by lockedjew 5 · 0 0

I can't explain - I threw out my Michael Jackson CD's a long time ago.

2007-04-25 12:24:48 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I know, I've always felt bad about it, but really, I believe Johnny Cash was a reformed man.

2007-04-25 12:27:46 · answer #4 · answered by open4one 7 · 0 0

It all depends on your PERSONAL definition of "morally right."

2007-04-25 12:25:43 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

For the gary glitter fan club it is.

2007-04-25 12:31:32 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

only if you thoroughly hate yourself afterwards

2007-04-25 12:23:22 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

of course it is. do you like Wagner? he was a nazi.

2007-04-25 12:28:43 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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