If f and g are functions defined on the set of all real numbers, then every element of the domain of g is an element of the domain of f of g.
A. True
B. False
2007-04-25 10:30:18 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
True
The function f in the "f of g" is irrelivant.
All that matter is that the last function performed is g
2007-04-25 10:37:13 · answer #1 · answered by Mnementh 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
False.
Let g(x) = i
Let f(x) = 1/(x^2 + 1)
No element in the domain of g is in the domain of f(g(x)).
2007-04-25 17:39:31 · answer #2 · answered by akk.271828 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
TRUE. the domains of f and g are given to be the same.
2007-04-25 17:35:48 · answer #3 · answered by ironduke8159 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes
2007-04-25 17:41:04 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
A
2007-04-25 17:34:27 · answer #5 · answered by bgavra989 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋