I bought a house when I was single, met a woman then married her. She has had no contribution into the house in terms of money, bills and has never resided at the address. Is she entitled to half of it if we split up? Please settle my mind.
2007-04-25 08:25:19 · 27 answers · asked by john 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
If you bought the house before you were married, and she has never taken up residence there, then I say she's not entitled.
What's usually divided are things you shared. So if it was purchased by you (her name is not on the property), and she never lived there (so you're not taking away her home or affecting her lifestyle), then I'd say she can't touch it. Now, if something happened and for some strange reason you "owe" her a boatload of money, then the judge may order you to sell the property to pay off that debt to her, but other than that I can't see her being entitled.
2007-04-25 08:42:33 · answer #1 · answered by ♥ justbnme ♥ 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
In most states a wife is not entitled to property bought before the marriage. If you sell the house however, and put that money towards a new house....she is entitled to half. My suggestion, if you are very worried about the if's of splitting up, get into counseling NOW or if you are not married yet, do not do so until you are sure.
2007-04-25 08:40:46 · answer #2 · answered by theartisttwin 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, she is not entitled to half, but she's entitled to something. Check your state laws - better yet, contact a divorce attorney. At the very least, you could pay a couple of hundred bucks for a consultation and find out what your options are.
P.S. We spoke to an attorney about these issues before we got married; the answer was, it is not "community property" unless it was bought AFTER marriage - however, the spouse in entitled to *some* compensation, and this compensation is determined by the state laws. One thing I can tell you, she cannot take "half" of what you owned before marriage; it's not that cut-and-dry. See an attorney.
2007-04-25 08:49:54 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is something that confuses me as it seems so simple yet no one realises!! It is YOUR house. You paid for it and if she made no contribution why does she end up getting half if not more!!! It makes no sense to me. Put your mind at ease that it is fully your property and whatever she put in, whether it be a telephone or sofa, you give back. But as you both lived there together she should have contributed to the bills and if she didn't she has no right to even argue for half of everything you have. Unfortunately the law doesn't see it this way...
2007-04-25 08:32:13 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Do you have kids if this is the case yes... No court in the land will allow you to put your wife and your kids out. However if there are not children you may be asked to buy her out or sell it to pay of marital debt there are so many options regarding this according to your state. How long have you been married stuff like that. When I got divorce my husband had a Sears card that he had years before I was married to him. I never used the card or even knew he had it.... I never shopped at sears anywho... It should up on my credit report! I was told once you are married everything is shared but I was able to fight it! If you can fight it try it! She may want to be bought out to prove she is suffering of some sort and you have to see about her the law wont allow you to just put her out unless she leaves for 6 mos or more in some states.
2007-04-25 08:47:09 · answer #5 · answered by tressroy 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Is your relationship on shaky ground even before you start? I agree you should ask.. did you ask him? Do you trust him? If it was a man asking, I would ask the same of him! Ok, you want outsiders to tell you. The laws vary in each State, but mostly, get the house after one marries.. You are then both responsible for the payments. Michigan has laws that protect the home loaner and not the buyer, although they always claim to be on the poor couples side! The wife must sign in Michigan. You need to confront your fiancee about your inquiry or are you keeping it hush. A bad way to start any commitment. Earl
2016-04-01 06:59:09 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
she's likely entitled to half of the property, but it doesn't necessarily mean the house has to be sold. and it might depend upon how long you've been married, and what the circumstances for divorce would be.
plus, you and your wife (either personally or through your attorneys) need to come to an agreement about the division of marital property.
consult an attorney with the facts. that is your best course of action.
take cre.
2007-04-25 09:13:52 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
it may depend on the state you live in, but in most situations like this, she is entitled to half of the equity that has accrued since you have been married. I does not matter that she has not contributed financially, you are legally married, it is marital property.
2007-04-25 08:31:01 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
That will depend on the law where you live. Generally she will get nothing if there was no mortage on it. But, if earnings during a marriage were used to pay down mortagage, improve house, etc. she may have some claim to a bit of equity in the house. Consult a lawyer.
2007-04-25 08:30:45 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
If you can prove that she made no financial contribution to the home, and her name is not on any documentation I see no reason why she would be entitled to any it.
2007-04-25 08:38:11 · answer #10 · answered by Tangled Web 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋