hahaha i know some of you dont like my questions but o well.. i like to make you think :)
2007-04-24 17:45:33 · 22 answers · asked by GleN 6 in Entertainment & Music ➔ Polls & Surveys
well, in point of fact, you're absolutely right!
But it originally comes from the phrase..."after darkness falls..."
2007-04-24 17:47:45 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
that is a very good question actually. Because it makes more sense.
But I think what people meant when they say after dark is like "after darkness have taken place ".
2007-04-25 00:49:02 · answer #2 · answered by Thang Mit 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is refering to "after" it become dark.
Like after dinner is after dinner is over.
Hope that helps. Now, Why do they call it a driveway when you park on it and they call it a parkway but you drive on it?
2007-04-25 01:25:32 · answer #3 · answered by Stever 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i think its an old saying that's changed over the years. Maybe is used to be... "after darkness falls." Another way of saying "After sunset"?
2007-04-25 00:48:53 · answer #4 · answered by rigby88 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I thought after dark was in the mornings...
2007-04-25 00:49:24 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's after dark sets in. It is actually during the dark though.
It's shortened from "After it gets dark."
2007-04-25 00:47:44 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because its after it has turned dark.
2007-04-25 00:47:53 · answer #7 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
its short for after the dark sets in.
2007-04-25 00:47:34 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
It refers to after dark has fallen, not after the period of darkness.
2007-04-25 00:47:46 · answer #9 · answered by Joy M 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I think it was origanally after darkness falls. And morning is after daylight breaks.
I like your Qs, keep 'em comin'.
2007-04-25 00:48:41 · answer #10 · answered by Bek 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋