2007-04-24 02:15:50 · 10 answers · asked by The_Informer 4 in Politics & Government ➔ Elections
We HAD the vote cause it was ours to give
2007-04-24 02:18:46 · answer #1 · answered by chillipope 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
In the days of Colonial rule, only certain men were permitted to vote. After independence was achieved (I assume we're talking the United States here), that was still the case for a time: you had to be male, over 21 and a land owner to be able to vote. By 1920, when women were allowed to vote in national elections, all adult male citizens had been voting for several generations.
2007-04-24 02:46:42 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Men who rented property of a certain value were allowed to vote in the UK in 1832. The majority (around 60%) of men could vote by 1884. All men, regardless of property, could vote in the UK at the age of 21 in 1918.
In the US all white men were allowed to vote in 1856 and non-white men in 1870 (though in reality this was often not so). Although women got the vote in 1920 native americans weren't allowed to vote until 1924.
2007-04-24 04:41:51 · answer #3 · answered by Mordent 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Before 1832 it was a confused picture - some areas gave the vote as of right, others a property rate obtained. It worked out as 8 per cent of the male population and less in Scotland. There are records of local officials such as burgesses being elected in the 14th century.
Universal male suffrage was in 1918, after WWI
2007-04-24 07:51:32 · answer #4 · answered by tagette 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
When it was said they could vote. Before them, in fact before various groups, only white, male landowners could vote. Now you may not find anything wrong with it, but the rest of the population did, and as a result, the US actually became a democracy where people could vote regardless of race or gender.
2007-04-24 02:25:57 · answer #5 · answered by Huey Freeman 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
At the beginning, it was only white men who owned property that had the vote. Later it changed to all white males. Then black men &, after the women's suffrage in 1776, women were finally allowed to vote. You can google this on Wikepedia.
2007-04-24 02:21:13 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 2⤋
Not until the 12 Amendment was passed in 1803.
2007-04-24 02:20:31 · answer #7 · answered by MI 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Yes - I am a feminist... Yes - I am a guy...
Men created the vote.... just like every other thing that is meant to keep white, straight, christian men in power...
any more stupid questions meant to antagonize?
2007-04-24 02:20:35 · answer #8 · answered by rabble rouser 6 · 4⤊ 2⤋
White man always had the right to vote.
2007-04-24 02:23:42 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 2⤋
unfortunately the privileged few who were men have always had the vote ..... so privileged males ..then not so privileged males ..... then women ..should we say thanks ...OK thanks for that as if it makes a difference sorry not feminists just a women saying it as it is
2007-04-25 10:58:59 · answer #10 · answered by bobonumpty 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋