English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

I signed a Direct Debit payment to s company, where I did give them all information collect. The family name was correct, but the first name I did write down both the two words, I just wrote one only. Moreover, The Signture wasn't the same one I gave to my bank and on my passport. However they got my bank account number, and my brithday was correct.
In this case, will the money still be transfered to them? I don't really want to give them. This agreement is still lawful or not? Do I still have to pay them money by law?

2007-04-23 23:11:56 · 2 answers · asked by No 1 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

2 answers

The information is still lawful as under the law regardless of whethher the document was read or not, whether correct terms was installed unless grossly unreasonable if not the contract will deem valid under the common law because the court is reluctant to interfere in commercial contract unless they have good reasons to do so.

2007-04-23 23:26:57 · answer #1 · answered by lakaria_2000 5 · 0 0

Okay, all of the information you gave is pretty much irrelevant for answering your real questions.

If the money has not been transferred, you can probably stop it by going to your bank and instructing them not to honor the payment. You should be able to retract the authorization, so the answer is that the agreement probably is still lawful and the money will be taken unless you do something to stop it.

I don't know whether you have to pay them or not. You didn't say why you were sending the money in the first place. If you legally owed them the money before, I see nothing in your facts that changes that, so probably you do have to pay them someday, somehow.

2007-04-24 06:37:06 · answer #2 · answered by open4one 7 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers