It's grammatically correct, but a little bit confusingly punctuated: with the quotation marks around each word, the presence of the little apostrophe at the end of the incorrect word gets a bit lost. I'd replace quotation marks with italics. Also, the phrase that begins "nor has it ever" might be a bit less confusing if it was set off with a dash rather than a comma. So, using angle brackets to denote italics, I get:
means 'it is', shows possession, and no such word as exists -- nor has it ever, not even in the 30s when lots of people became confused about using as a contraction for 'it is'.
2007-04-23 18:16:07
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answer #1
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answered by Juli 5
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Well, it's basically grammatically (note the 2 m's there!) correct, except that a semi-colon is needed between the first "it is" ending the first clause and the following "its" beginning the next clause. But grammar aside, there's a real point of confusion here, in that first there is the assertion that " 'its' shows possession" (which is absolutely correct, by the way) and then the statement following that "no such word as 'its' exists....."
The sentence might read-----
"It's" means "it is"; "its" shows possession. It is never correct to use "its" as a contraction for "it is"; it has never been correct to do this, not even in the 30s when lots of people became confused about this usage.
Hope you can see what I mean here. And by the way, I'm glad you're raising this question, because it's (!) appalling to me to see how many people are unaware of how to use these two different forms!
2007-04-23 16:59:37
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answer #2
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answered by ? 5
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I know what you're trying to say, but another way of constructing this sentence could be: "The Pronominal possessive "its" has no apostrphe, depsite popular belief and useage. It is the indefinte pronoun "it's" that uses the apostrophe to illustrate possession.
2007-04-23 16:56:43
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answer #3
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answered by erin87 2
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Grammatically confusing. I don't even know where to begin in fixing this one. I really think there's about three sentences embedded in the one.
2007-04-23 16:54:45
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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You can't get people to understand this, as it's too complex for many.
Folks, you need to get Strunk and White's "Elements of Style". Everything you need to know about grammar in one convenient place
2007-04-23 17:19:19
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answer #5
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answered by Experto Credo 7
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It's understandable and it's correct in todays language.
2007-04-23 16:53:28
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answer #6
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answered by burning brightly 7
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Language is dynamic and arbitrary pal.. You should know that from time to time, rules of grammar change.
2007-04-23 17:11:19
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answer #7
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answered by eNgLish wiZaRd 2
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No, it's not.
2007-04-23 16:56:55
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answer #8
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answered by yahoohoo 6
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