2007-04-23 09:36:05 · 3 answers · asked by armani 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
If the wavelengths are the same, their velocity with respect to each other is inversely proportional to their mass.
lambda = h / (m * v).
So the proton having the greater mass about 1800 times the mass of an electron is going to be much slower than the velocity of the electron for same wavelengths.
2007-04-23 09:49:03 · answer #1 · answered by KingGeorge 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
wavelength=h/mv discover mass of an electron (9.a million cases 10^-31 kg) and convert wavelength to meters. H=(6.626 X 10^-34) V=h/(m X wavelength) X=multiply lol lemme know if u get it ultimate.
2016-11-26 23:22:36 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is a guess off the top of my head. If the next guy/gal says they're certain take his/her answer.
Ep = Ee
1/2 * mp * vp^2 = 1/2 * me * ve^2
sqrt(1836) = ve / vp
ve and vp are velocity of electron and proton, respectively
me and mp are mass....
mp/me = 1836 (looked up in a fundemental physical properties table).
.
2007-04-23 09:43:53 · answer #3 · answered by tlbs101 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋