MLB Rule 7.12:
Unless two are out, the status of a following runner is not affected by a preceding runner’s failure to touch or retouch a base. If, upon appeal, the preceding runner is the third out, no runners following him shall score. If such third out is the result of a force play, neither preceding nor following runners shall score.
Runs cannot score when the third out is a force play. The runner on second was required to advance and no tag was needed to record the out. No run.
2007-04-23 03:03:32
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answer #1
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answered by Chipmaker Authentic 7
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No, the run does not count. The runner is forced out at 3rd base. This is no different than if the hitter were thrown out at first.
Had there been no runner on 1st, and the runner coming to third base was tagged out after the runner crossed the plate, the run would have counted, but because it was a force out it does not.
2007-04-23 02:53:29
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answer #2
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answered by Coach 3
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If the runner OUT at 3rd was the runner that started at 2nd then the run does not count because it is a Force Out. If the runner out at 3rd is the one that started at 1B then it does count because he must be tagged. Of Course, that would mean the guy on second did not make it home. Happened in a Cubs game last year when Ramirez jogged around 3rd and did not cross home before an out at 3rd...
2007-04-23 04:16:25
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answer #3
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answered by Vince C 2
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It does not count if the runner thrown out at third came from second base, because it would be a force out.
2007-04-23 04:04:42
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answer #4
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answered by CrazyFoo 1
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If the runner never reaches 3rd Base then the run does not count. All players must reach a base they are forced to go to for a run to count. Now if the runner simply over runs 3rd and then is tagged out then the run counts because it occurred before the 3rd out.
2007-04-23 02:51:23
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answer #5
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answered by Jimmy C 1
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The run doesn't score. It is considered a continuation play. As long as the force out is made before the runner reaches the bag is is an out, no matter when the runner touches home plate.
2007-04-23 04:25:21
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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If the run scored earlier the charm out, then confident it does count form. (Assuming you advise the runner from 2nd out for leaving the backside too quickly.) right this moment from the guidelines 4.09: "right here's a popular assertion that covers: while a runner misses a base and a fielder holds the ball on a neglected base, or on the backside initially occupied by employing the runner if a fly ball is caught, and appeals for the umpire’s decision, the runner is out while the umpire sustains the charm; all runners might score if available, different than that with 2 out the runner is out on the 2nd he misses the bag, if an charm is persisted as utilized to here runners. authorized Ruling: One out, Jones on third, Smith on first, and Brown flies out to ideal field. 2 outs. Jones tags up and rankings after the seize. Smith tried to return to first however the main suitable fielder’s throw beat him to the backside. 3 outs. yet Jones scored earlier the throw to seize Smith reached first base, for this reason Jones’ run counts. It exchange into no longer a tension play."
2016-10-13 06:35:48
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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No, because the out at third was a force. No runs can score on a play in which the third out is a force.
2007-04-23 07:15:28
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answer #8
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answered by Ryan R 6
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nope, if the bases are loaded its a force out at third. that would be no different than the batter hitting a weak ground ball to the 3rd baseman and him stepping on the bag. and whoever was on second should be beaten for not going on contact with 2 outs and getting thrown out at 3rd base.
2007-04-23 08:13:30
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answer #9
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answered by DoReidos 7
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No, the out is a force at third and the run would not count.
2007-04-23 03:25:33
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answer #10
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answered by J-Far 6
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