If a couple get married in one jurisdiction, then visit another where one or both of them is under the legal age of consent, is it legal for them to have sex in the second jurisdiction, or must they wait until them go home again, or until they move to another jurisdiction where the age of consent permits them to have sex? I'm interested in the answer either in a US or international context, or both. Thanks!
2007-04-21
03:07:32
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9 answers
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asked by
2kool4u
5
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics
There's nothing personal in this question. I don't live in Alabama and I'm not married to anyone. It's just a question that I thought of when reading the newspapers in the country I live in (not the US). There has been some controversy in my country over the relevant legislation and I'm just curious how it works in practice when this kind of issue arises. I wish people wouldn't jump to conclusions about the personal circumstances or motivations of people asking questions on this forum. Thanks.
2007-04-21
03:24:39 ·
update #1
The question is asked out of philosophical interest, i.e. in the context of the complicated and perhaps unintended consequences of making laws to restrict individual freedoms in the interests of other values (e.g. the protection of minors). Some related issues arise in the context of laws against bigamy, e.g. in regard to the legal status of persons who have been married in states where polygamy is legal (e.g. Muslim countries) and who then move to countries where it is prohibited. A similar issue might arise in the sphere of recreational drugs: e.g. if someone smokes cannabis in a country where it is legal and then fails an employment-related test in a country where it is illegal, they might conceivably have a case against their employer for sanctioning them for something that was not illegal when/where they did it.
2007-04-21
03:54:15 ·
update #2