2007-04-19 15:39:58 · 19 answers · asked by Livinrawguy 7 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
First of all sexual relations between a married couple should be considered making love. Yes, on occasion, it could be just sex depending on what the conditions are. Either way, both partners should be into it otherwise why do it?
2007-04-19 16:18:48 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
I believe all sex should be mutual. I was raised with the belief that if both parties did not want sex to happen it was called rape.
2007-04-19 22:45:49 · answer #2 · answered by kaicey247 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Everything in marriage is a mutual decision. Enough said.
2007-04-19 22:54:04 · answer #3 · answered by dawnb 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not sure what you mean by mutual, but yes...both parties should agree to it. Married couples should always be available to one another sexually. They should always take into consideration how the other feels as well.
2007-04-19 22:43:14 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
I agree. Sex in marriage should be agreed to by both parties.
2007-04-19 22:47:18 · answer #5 · answered by Poppet 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I believe sex in marriage should be: sex in marriage.
2007-04-19 22:50:46 · answer #6 · answered by WILLIAM W 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Some couples, the way they treat their sex lives, its as if they only eat dinner if they both feel like the exact same thing, otherwise they go hungry.
2007-04-19 22:56:05 · answer #7 · answered by kheserthorpe 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
UHH what is unmutual sex? Rape?
Sex normally requires consent by both parties.
2007-04-19 22:48:59 · answer #8 · answered by hi_stk_n 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Well if you mean that both people should participate, then yeah, mutual is probably best.
2007-04-19 22:44:01 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
I sure hope it's mutual.. otherwise who are you doing with??
2007-04-19 22:55:49 · answer #10 · answered by sewingmom 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋