The length of time depends on 1) what they agreed to in their divorce settlement or 2) the minimum that the state requires, which is half the length of their marriage. California is a community property state so regardless WHAT she is (IE. gold-digger), the state considers her entitled to half of his worth during the time they were married (unless he had a pre-nup).
If you are planning on marrying the guy, don't get too hung up on his ex-wife.... it is what it is and there isn't anything you can do to change the past. More than likely she gets paid off in one more year. Hopefully they don't have kids together as it could REALLY go on for alot longer...........
mb
2007-04-19 14:27:17
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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5 years is typical if under 10 years. I understand ten is the limit where they may have to pay for life long or until married again.
An attorney told me...They had never seen anyone remarry who was on a time limited spousal support while in the time frame. They do indeed get married the day after the support expires!
2007-04-19 14:18:35
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answer #2
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answered by ca_redneckgirl 2
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In ALL states income and property (provided it was obtained using martial funds) acquired during the marriage by either spouse is considered martial property and is subject to division. Even in non-community property states the NORM in division is 50/50.
The answer to your question is “whatever the court ordered”. They may have ordered him to pay it for 5 years, 10 years, etc. OR with a 10-year marriage (which is considered a "marriage of long duration") it may be permanent alimony, which means he pays until one of them is deceased or she remarries.
As far as “why should she be entitled to money she doesn’t work for”, well…did she support him/the household financially while he was in school or getting his career/a practice off the ground? Or did they use martial funds to pay off his school loans? If so, then she directly contributed to his *future* income earning abilities. So, yes, I think she should be entitled to some compensation for that (in whatever form, be it alimony, a larger percentage of the martial assets, etc).
But that’s merely my personal opinion, and according to the law if she was married to him and met the requirements for alimony, then she’s entitled rather she financially contributed during the marriage or not. But I will admit that I have a big problem with women who were only married for *a few years* and think they deserve alimony as a result of that.
2007-04-19 15:41:40
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answer #3
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answered by kp 7
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There are generalizations - a million/2 the dimensions of the marriage if it develop right into a quick-term marriage (under 10 years) or till loss of lifestyles or remarriage if it develop right into an prolonged-term marriage (over 10 years). there are a number of factors the courtroom makes use of while making spousal help orders, in accordance to relatives Code §4320. the only thank you to be attentive to the specifics to your destiny husband's case is to examine the order. reckoning on what develop into ordered, he could be waiting to request a transformation. He could desire to seek for an criminal expert's advice. sturdy success
2016-11-25 23:17:36
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answer #4
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answered by ? 4
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If he was married for 10 years, he pays until she dies or re-marries. The amount of time is important, if it is even one day under 10 years he pays for the length of the marriage. However the most important part is what it says in the divorce decree. The parties can agree to any terms they want.
2007-04-19 14:19:18
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answer #5
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answered by Just a friend. 6
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I think that's terrible. He should know for how long he was ordered to pay. If he's been paying for 4 years, hopefully it's almost over.
2007-04-19 14:19:43
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answer #6
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answered by mamabear 6
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