So he supposes his nose *is* roses, or is he speaking symbolically?????
2007-04-19 08:13:39 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymoose 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Mythology & Folklore
It's true for the following reasons:
1. We only have one nose, so he supposes erroneously that he even has noses.
2. If he did have noses, he would be supposing erroneously that his noses were roses (they're not, they're noses)
3. It's erroneous because noses is plural and "is" is singular.
2007-04-19 08:37:34 · answer #1 · answered by davidinark 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
True. For everyone knowses that noses aren't roses, as Moses supposes his noses to be. Actually, I heard that he supposes his toeses are roses. In nay case, he supposes erroneously.
2007-04-19 08:34:36 · answer #2 · answered by Starfall 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Probably poetically by definition. But could be taken literally to have the same effect on the adage.
Such as "supposes his nose is roses" could poetically refer to "supposing his nose is identifying roses".
2007-04-19 08:32:52 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, ohhhhhhh
2007-04-23 05:38:33 · answer #4 · answered by linda r 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Eh?
2007-04-19 09:40:17 · answer #5 · answered by ♥Heather♥ 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
what have you been smoking dude!
2007-04-19 08:22:42 · answer #6 · answered by J 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
ummmmm..... "Burma Shave".....
2007-04-19 08:21:05 · answer #7 · answered by beatlefan 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋