L1 through (-2, -3) and (4,3)
L2 through (3,5) and (5,7)
2007-04-17 12:53:31 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
slope L1 = 6/6=1
slope of L2= 2/2=1
Since they are both the same, the lines are parallel.
2007-04-17 12:56:38 · answer #1 · answered by bruinfan 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Line 1 and Line 2 have the same slope. If it has the same slope, they must be parallel.
2007-04-17 19:56:15 · answer #2 · answered by John Smith 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm in 8th grade and people call me a math geek but I don't care. Those lines are difinitely parallel because the will never ever touch and they have the same slope.
2007-04-17 20:07:34 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
4-(-2)=6, not 2!
Step 1 - Find slope:
(Y1-Y2)/(X1-X2)
0/6 = 0
2/2 = 1
Step 2 - Compare:
Parallel: 0 =1, no
Perpendicular: 0 = -1, or 1 = -1/0, no
It is neither
2007-04-17 20:01:01 · answer #4 · answered by waterviolite 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
according to my graph its niether
2007-04-17 19:58:32 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋