2007-04-17 12:36:14 · 11 answers · asked by mousie 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
42% of 1,500 is 630
.42 X 1500 = 630
2007-04-17 12:39:32 · answer #1 · answered by John S 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
It is 630--here are a couple of ways to do it:
1) Do 0.42 x 1500, because 0.42 is the same as 42/100, which is the same as 42 percent. The reason you multiply 42 percent by 1500 is because 'of' is the same as 'times' in math a lot.
2) You can do it in fraction formation: 42/100 x 1500, which I think is much easier, because you can cross-reduce 42/100 and 1500 to make 42/1 x 15, so then you just need to 42 x 15.
By the way, most people write 0.42 as '.42' which is still exactly the same, but the proper mathematical way to write it is to always put the zero in front of the decimal.
2007-04-17 19:46:50 · answer #2 · answered by hanalulu2☺♥☻ 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Do .42 (decimal of 42%) times 1500=630
2007-04-17 19:39:44 · answer #3 · answered by carr 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
use a calculator, even the basic ones have a % key.
1500 X 42%= 630
2007-04-17 19:44:00 · answer #4 · answered by ily. 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
630 is 42% of 1,500
2007-04-17 19:40:15 · answer #5 · answered by Ninja_of_heroes 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1,500 x 42%=
1,500 x .42= 630
1,500/x =100/42
100x=63000
100x/100=63000/100
x=630
2007-04-17 19:43:08 · answer #6 · answered by Dave aka Spider Monkey 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
42% of 1,500
.42 * 1,500 =630
2007-04-17 19:42:23 · answer #7 · answered by Justina 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
i think is 630.
of means multiply
.42 x 1500= 630
2007-04-17 19:40:17 · answer #8 · answered by sunshinegirl93534 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
1500*.42=630
2007-04-17 19:39:40 · answer #9 · answered by Wade C 1 · 1⤊ 1⤋
1500(.42)=630
to check.
630/.42=1500
2007-04-17 19:39:51 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋