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Looking at the graph of sin(x), I thought sinx would approach 0 as x-->0. Same w/ tan(x). I don't understand why 1/sin(x) approaches x.

2007-04-17 03:13:27 · 4 answers · asked by Fred 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

4 answers

No., when x -> 0+, 1/sin(x) -> oo and when x -> 0-, 1/sin(x) -> -oo. This follows from the fact that sin(x) -> 0+ as x-> 0+ and sin(x) -> 0- when x -> 0-

It doesnt' make sense to say a limit approaches x or any other function. If the limit exists, it's either a real number or oo or -oo.

2007-04-17 03:24:21 · answer #1 · answered by Steiner 7 · 0 2

The answer is 0 not 1

2016-05-17 07:54:21 · answer #2 · answered by margaretta 3 · 0 0

As x->0, sin x doe sapproach 0, so 1/(sin x) goes to infinity. The answer to the limit has to either be a number or infinity (or be undefined). It cannot be a function (i.e. x).

2007-04-17 03:18:59 · answer #3 · answered by mathematician 7 · 2 0

it doesn't

sinx ~ x - x^3/6 + O(x^5)
1/sinx ~ (1/x)(1-x^2/6 +O(x^4))^(-1) ~ 1/x + x/6 +O(x^3) -->oo

2007-04-17 03:21:19 · answer #4 · answered by hustolemyname 6 · 0 1

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