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You Know what I mean? So when you do multiplication, you add more groups of something, so what happens if you multiply Infinity? What would happen? Can anybody tell me?

2007-04-17 00:57:30 · 12 answers · asked by Dude I am a 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

12 answers

No, infinity is the exception. All infinities are the same. So infinity times infinity is actually infinity. Infinity is a mathematical concept and has no metaphysical equivalent in nature.

2007-04-17 01:08:52 · answer #1 · answered by the.lilhb 2 · 1 2

Infinity is not a number. So, infinity groups of infinity is infinity.
I hope that makes sense.

2007-04-24 15:56:06 · answer #2 · answered by JM 2 · 0 0

infinity is not a number so if it is multiplied by any number or infintity itself, it is still infinity. Infinity is a concept not a number so it does not act like a number.

infinity can't become anything but infinity

2007-04-22 12:07:45 · answer #3 · answered by Ty 2 · 0 0

Very good question. My answer is "no." As infinity is not a numerical value, it cannot be multiplied. Multiplication is a mathematical operation that rests on finite numerical values. For example, I2 (infinity times 2) is only an expression, but not a mathematical value. Hope that helps.

2007-04-17 01:10:28 · answer #4 · answered by Chris 3 · 0 2

they are both infinity so its the same thing. its like saying is 1x1x1x1x1x1x1x1 is bigger than 1 (by the way its no, since anything times 1 equals one)

2007-04-24 07:06:47 · answer #5 · answered by arzbarz 2 · 0 0

there are two different types of infinity. Your question is very good. One type is considered to be "bigger" than the other! It's not quite "multiplying"; but you have the essence of it. Please continue in Mathematics. Sometime during your studies at University you will go: "Aha! so that's what I was thinking!"

2007-04-25 00:28:45 · answer #6 · answered by emin8r 2 · 1 0

infinity times any real number is infinity
if you have infinity times infinity or infinity to the infinity power the form is indeterminate form and you need to do algebra or l'hopitals rule or whatever is appropriate to determine a limit

2007-04-24 16:44:12 · answer #7 · answered by Josh 3 · 0 0

There are various levels of infinity. The two most used are "countable" and "uncountable"

countable is like the number of integers (1, 2, 3...). If the infinite collection of object is such that you can "number" each object according to a formula, then the collection contains a "countable" infinity.

For example, the number of even numbers (2, 4, 6, 8, 10...). The number of squares of integers (1, 4, 9, 16, 25...)

For each even number (or for each square), you can assign an integer (e.g., by dividing the even number by 2). In this way, you can show that the infinite number of even integers is of the same order as the infinite number of integers.

In between 0 and 1, there is an infinite number of rational fractions (fractions that can be written as p/q where p and q are integers -- a countable infinity of each). Someone has shown, long ago, that you can write a formula that assigns an integer to each distinct fraction, demonstrating that the total number of rational fractions is also a countable infinity (even though their 'total' number is infinity times infinity).

Therefore, a countable infinity multiplied by anything (including another countable infinity) is still a countable infinity (this 'size' is called aleph-null in set theory)

PS: there is one exception: infinity times zero (indefinite).

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There is a far greater number of irrational numbers -- real numbers that cannot be written as p/q.

So much so that it has been shown to be impossible to write a formula to attach a number to each irrational fraction. Therefore, there is an "uncountable" infinity of irrational numbers (therefore, an uncountable number of real numbers).

An uncountable infinity times anything, including countable or uncountable infinity, is still an uncountable infinity. (called aleph-one).

Then things can get weird. See "hyperreal" numbers for higher levels of infinity.

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So, to answer your question: no.

2007-04-17 01:28:11 · answer #8 · answered by Raymond 7 · 2 3

It mest be bigger becaus as Buzz Lightyear would say 'Infinity and Beyond'

2007-04-24 22:51:45 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

When you multiply infinity, you get an indeterminite type(inf/inf, inf/0, x/0, inf*inf, etc). If you're doing say integrals or limits, you must eliminate the indeterminite type to solve the problem. In a general sense, if you're given inf*inf or inf*2 on a test, it's just inf because it's a constant, no matter what you do to it, it stays the same.

2007-04-17 01:09:24 · answer #10 · answered by Sarah 4 · 0 2

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