English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

I am having a hard time understanding the law about the drinking age. I know that in 1984 the drinking age was going to be upped to 21, but then I am getting information that says it happened in 1987. I understand that in 1984 the Federal government said that each state is required to up the drinking age to 21, or lose federal money for state highway funding. But where does the 1987 come into play? Or is completely wrong, because I think that the 1984 law says that no one under 21 can purchase or possess alcohol, but it doesn't say anything about not consuming it. Please someone help me understand this!

2007-04-16 16:27:33 · 6 answers · asked by Remi D. 2 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

I also found it strange that it says you can't possess or purchase, but not anything about consuming, but honest that's what what all the articles say.

2007-04-16 16:43:43 · update #1

6 answers

The was passed in 1984 and directed the Secretary of Transportation withhold 10% of a states highways funds of nay state "in which the purchase or public possession in such State of any alcoholic beverage by a person who is less than twenty-one years of age is lawful." The statues gave a deadline of September 30, 19085 as a deadline for compliance.

The U.S. Supreme Court upheld the statute in a 1987 ruling stemming from a lawsuit filed by South Dakota. It is possible that enforcement of the law was delayed pending the outcome of the lawsuit.

2007-04-16 17:18:13 · answer #1 · answered by Carl 7 · 0 0

Drinking age is ultimately a state law issue. The federal law using the road-money incentives passed in 1984, but states had time to implement it. I know in Ohio it went into effect August 1, 1987. Those 19 by that time were "grandfathered" in. I know because I missed the deadline by 22 days... :(

I don't understand the second part of your question - if you can't "possess" it, how could you "consume" it?

2007-04-16 23:34:25 · answer #2 · answered by FranklyTodd 2 · 0 0

Well, 1987 is three years after 1984, so maybe that was the deadline for getting to 21. Alot of states "grandfathered" people who were already 18 and could already drink so they wouldn't lose the right. But if you were under 18 before the law passed you would have to wait until 21.

2007-04-16 23:34:21 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Someone probably has a better answer than I, but, as I recall, the hullabaloo started in circa 1980. MADD and others were pushing to end teenage drinking and driving. They convinced the congress to cut off states' highway funding if the state did not rage its drinking age to 21 (previously, each state set its own drinking age, though all were over 18).

Maryland raised its drinking age starting July 1, 1982 (born before it you could drink, after you had to wait for 21). Texas did not raise its until about 1986. I think Texas was the last holdout (don't quote me).

Also, about consumption -- a guardian can (in most states, I dont know about all) give a minor alchohol, but only in limited amounts. Typically, religious events are meant to be excluded.

2007-04-16 23:44:35 · answer #4 · answered by Jeffrey C 3 · 0 0

I think that it was implemented in 1984, and all states were in compliance in 1987. Because I know that the state I live in (Wisconsin) raised it in 1984. I had to wait longer due to that. . .

2007-04-16 23:34:52 · answer #5 · answered by volleyballchick (cowards block) 7 · 0 0

There's no way to consume it without possessing it. If you finish it before the cops grab the bottle, you're probably okay (so long as you're not driving).

2007-04-16 23:36:09 · answer #6 · answered by bullwinkle 5 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers