2007-04-16 13:20:42 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
False. The mult. inverse of 2 is 1/2 which is not an integer.
2007-04-16 13:24:40 · answer #1 · answered by richardwptljc 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
false because the inverse of an integer is not necessarily itself an integer.
explanation: a number n has a multiplicative inverse if there exists another number n* such that n times n* = 1. this is of course true for the integers; any integer n has the multiplicative inverse 1/n. the inverse is not itself an integer, though (unless the integer is 1, because 1/1=1), so we say that the set of integers does not have an inverse property under multiplication.
did that make sense? i hope it helps.
-jveldridge@yahoo.com
2007-04-16 20:28:51 · answer #2 · answered by jveldridge 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Is there an integer that we can multiply by any other integer to get 1 (the multiplicative identity)??
Well... let's try one... What if we had the integer 5? What can we multiply by 5 to get 1??? Well... the answer is 1/5, but this is not an integer... it's a rational number.
So, the set of integers does not have the inverse property under multiplication.
2007-04-16 20:25:48 · answer #3 · answered by Anthony T 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
False.
zero is integer.
it has not the inverse property under multiplication.
2007-04-16 20:27:03 · answer #4 · answered by iyiogrenci 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Both. It depends on the integers you start with. A positive times a negative is negative, but a negative times a negative equals a positive.
2007-04-16 20:25:30 · answer #5 · answered by cilsavon 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
True -4 * -1/4 = 1
2007-04-16 20:25:23 · answer #6 · answered by leo 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋