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5 answers

Nope. Consider the rectangle (0, 0), (0, 2), (1, 2), (1, 0). If the diagonals bisected the angles, they would have slopes of 1 and -1, but they do not -- their slopes are 2 and -2. Since rectangles are parallelograms, clearly there exist parallelograms whose diagonals do not bisect their angles.

2007-04-16 13:11:26 · answer #1 · answered by Pascal 7 · 1 0

No, unless it is a rhombus. The two diagonals of a parallelogram do bisect each other, though.

2007-04-16 20:00:23 · answer #2 · answered by hayharbr 7 · 2 1

True.

2007-04-16 19:59:15 · answer #3 · answered by nevyn55025 6 · 1 2

THAT IS CORRECT

2007-04-16 20:00:14 · answer #4 · answered by jack 5 · 1 2

YA

2007-04-16 19:59:39 · answer #5 · answered by solver 3 · 1 2

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