Nope. Consider the rectangle (0, 0), (0, 2), (1, 2), (1, 0). If the diagonals bisected the angles, they would have slopes of 1 and -1, but they do not -- their slopes are 2 and -2. Since rectangles are parallelograms, clearly there exist parallelograms whose diagonals do not bisect their angles.
2007-04-16 13:11:26
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answer #1
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answered by Pascal 7
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No, unless it is a rhombus. The two diagonals of a parallelogram do bisect each other, though.
2007-04-16 20:00:23
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answer #2
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answered by hayharbr 7
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